I've got a system where tasks get loaded and assigned to staff members.
I'm thinking of how I would like to somehow refresh a client page for a staff member if a new task gets assigned to that staff member. Some clerical people will be loading and assigning tasks to staff members.
How have you all handled this type of refresh in a webby environment. I'm fully jQuery and Ajax so I've got the tools...
Our current application is working fine but when you try to misbehave like we found out that When login with same user in multiple tab with different organization(there is a organization dropdown in the master page which sets the cookie whenever it is changed.) in tab one it is org 1 and tab 2 it is org2 , cookie has the later org 2 in it but when we go back in tab1(which had org1) and save the record org 2 will be saved with the record So can some one share some sort of a checklist with us which address these types of problem.
View 3 RepliesI'm using ckeditor in my CMS for website .. everything working fine ,, but when we write in Arabic and display the page the text always goes left even if we choose right from CKeditor ..
View 3 RepliesThis is sort of a continuation of a previous thread: View thread
The requirement I have is to be able to have a popup form that shows detailed data on a facility. This would be available on various pages of the website where the user may want to drill down and see detailed information on a facility. We also want to allow the user to update the data on the facility if so desired. I have the code working to show the popup form and get the html for the popup from a view. Right now I'm setting the values of the input boxes using razor code that accesses the @model object. That's about as far as I've gotten.
Where I'm struggling is:
1. How to tie the data in the inputs back to the view model.
2. How to write the ajax code to write the data back to the server. I tried using a standard form, but that redirects the original page that popped up the form. I want to leave that page alone and just submit the data back to the server and close the popup.
Now my dev lead wants us to use the dojo toolkit for our javascript library. That would be OK if I already knew what I was doing with regard to web development, but I don't - and documentation is just not very good with regard to dojo. I'm still trying to figure out html and mvc, so I thought I'd see if I can get this scheme working with some other javascript library first, and then see about switching it over to dojo.
I've read some about knockout and jquery, but with everything being so new to me it's hard to get all this to gel in my head, and I'm not sure about my design. I've read some about mvc's built in ajax tools, but so far all I'm seeing is stuff related to getting data and displaying it - not about submitting data.
I'd like to be able to send the data back to the server in the same object structure that I extracted it with - something that matches the model. I think this is doable, but I'm not sure - and the 'how' of it is escaping me at this point.
We have a simple ASP.NET app that uses the ASP.NET SqlMembershipProvider and all is great.
We want to create a second app on the same server, also use the SqlMembershipProvider, but a different "applicationName" so that the user accounts between the two apps are kept separate.
It looks like this would be possible by making the two different app domains (ie they each have their own web.config), but I'm hoping to just put them in different directories so I don't have 3 web.configs (one for each app, and the main one) that all have to be kept synchronized. So what I'm after is:
/web.config
/APP1 (uses membership provider in /web.config, with userlist A)
/APP2 (uses membership provider in /web.config, with userlist B)
It looks simple to define multiple membership providers that use a different 'applicationName' value.
But how do you tell the system.web.authentication node which membership provider to use?
At my work I have 2 logins, my main login "mike", and another one that we use to login into servers to manage applications, user "tech_mike"
On my machine I am logged in as "mike", I published the web-application to the server (through FTP). I RDP into the server using "tech_mike", and setup the application in IIS (create app, disable basic authentication and set windows authentication for the app)
Now when I want to test the application from my computer (user logged in "mike"), in the browser I type the link to the app [URL] and it tells me that I am not authorized. In the logs I can see that it is trying to login as "tech_mike", even though the user that I am logged in from my computer is "mike".
If I try to open the app on my local machine (local IIS), it is using the correct user "mike"
If someone else (another developer, he has "tech_user" account also) opens the app on the server: [URL] then he is able to login because it takes the correct user that is logged in into windows (not the "tech_user" account).
It seems only I have this problem because I connected through RDP (using different user) to setup the application in IIS on the server.
This is happening on all apps on the server that are using Windows Authentication, IIS (I think) somehow replaces my user "mike" with "tech_mike"
I want to handle the OnClick event on the client side with javascript, i tried using OnSelectionChanged which 's triggering event handler that's being handled in the code behind(.cs). Basically, my requirement is when user clicks on a particular date, i want to pass the date selected value to a javascript function to implement other part of the webpage functionality.How do I handle the onClick client side?
View 6 RepliesI'm trying to refresh update panel via Javascript:
__doPostBack("<%=upMyPanel.ClientID %>", "");
But somehow its controls are all empty. On other hand they are all filled when I click any trigger control.
How can I fix this?
How do I refresh GridView using Client CallBack?
View 3 RepliesI'm trying to update just the bing map I am using in an UpdatePanel because it takes a few seconds load. I need to call a javascript to refresh my pushpins though when the refresh is complete.
View 7 Repliesfor the past 6 hours i have been going trough a million forum posts , I've been reading blogs , tutorials documentation and more.
Unfortunately, the amount of deprecated information is absolutely overwhelming.
All i'm trying to achieve is to change the value of a parent dropdown to something else, programmatically, and then have the child dropdowns to refresh.
By now I'm quite certain i have to use the function _onParentChange in some way.
Whit this function i can actually get the first parent to refresh, how ever the functions seems to be doing absolutely nothing when i call it on the child
I've been seeing a lot about using a context key and several ways to use it, but I'm not using a context key, do i have to use one?
i'm using the latest version of the toolkit whit visual studios 2008
i'm using only two dropdowns whit two extenders
here is the code:
where i can find proper client side documentation per toolkit control ?
I have this Linkbutton
[Code]....
This "CheckOut.aspx" has a UpdatePanel and inside the update panel is a Gridview,
my problem is when ever i made changes in the data of the gridview, the changes does not automatically displayed/showed/materialized in the gridview when ever i click the linkbutton to open Checkout.aspx page, temporarily i place a refresh button to do a server request and place Gridview.databind(); on its click event to update the gridview but when i close the Modaldialog, and open it again, the Checkout page is not updated again.
i try the <META-Refresh> thing, i try the location.reload(true) thing but it does not update my table.
In a multitenant system that hosts multiple organizations and applications, where an organization may use several applications hosted on the system, should my user and role model be such that a single user or role can exist across multiple applications and organizations? Or should I limit a user entity to a single organization/application pair and then define some overarching model to tie those user entities together? That is: John Doe is a person He wants to use ApplicationA and ApplicationB He works for two different companies (just bear with me), OrganizationA and OrganizationB Should the user model be:
johndoe@someuniquesuffix is his unique user name. This gives him access to both applications for both organizations. johndoe@applicationa@organizationa is his username for ApplicationA at OrganizationA. [URL]is his username for ApplicationB at organizationA...and the same for OrganizationB. Then have some "master" list that says that all 4 user accounts for the apps/orgs correspond to the same actual "person", John Doe?
The same scenario(s) described above applies to how I will design my Role schema.
in my web application, what i did is when the user login, i check the username and password to the database, if user name and password match then allow to visit next pages and store the user name on Session, now my doubt is more then one user can use the same username and password(if they are friends then they shared their uname and pwd) so, how to avoid multiple use login?
View 2 RepliesI am developing a web application. This application is fully customised based on the user settings. Suppose, application hosted on [URL] and user can signup on the website and it will get the domain like [URL] and for user2 will be [URL] so and so forth. so in this case how would I maintain the session for each user? each user will be representing a single website along with public interface and admin pages.
what I am thinking is to store all the setting (for each user) in the database and then when ever server received request then get the user info from the URL (first time only and after get it from the session) and get user details but I am not very much satisfied with this approach.
I am working with asp.net 2.0 and sql server 2005. so trying to describe it below:
THE SITUATION
I have a few tables to hold data for billing information. The first table has each dedicated to each location, and a serial number that can be incremented. The concept is to update this data based on location, every time there is a new bill, so may be location A has serial 25 since it is doing well but location B has serial 5.
THE PROBLEM
SO based on this requirement I need to update a table to get the latest serial for a particular location and then use that serial for other tables which will be holding the billing details. The second part is as regular as it can be, but generating a new number, and getting this value is my problem. Since this will be multi user system, so I want some robust solution. I do not know whether I can use a identity field for this purpose or not.
I have a webservice which of course has to be .net 3.5 (a side note is does anyone know why you can't create a webservice using .net 4.0?).
Anyhow it is using entity framework, which I have recently discovered was a really bad mistake to try to use this in .net 3.5.
I have a table "Licenses" with the following columns: LicenseKey, ProductCode, OrderID, Seq, UserName.
In my asp.net 4.0 application I can simply do the following to perform an update:
[Code]....
But it appears there is no ExecuteStoreCommand in .net 3.5 with entity framework. Can anyone explain to me how to accomplish the same thing? The thing I need to point out is that because this is a multi-user access service. I need to verify that SQL will only update the given record where OrderID and Seq is what I tell it ONLY if the UserName is already null. So if two users process the same statement at the same time only one would work and the other would not because the sql should fail (or return 0, rather than a 1) for the second one.
I am looking at a design pattern which has come up in quite a few of my firm's projects.It has historically functioned correctly, however I have heard some other developers argue that there is a possibility of session corruption using this pattern. I'm looking for insight from other .NET developers here on Stack Overflow. Basically, there's a class -- usually either static or a Singleton pattern, depending largely on the developer who wrote it -- stored in App_Code.This class encapsulates access to the current session via properties.All of these properties take the form of:
[code]...
However,because this is just a static entry to HttpContext.Current.Session,it seems like it should be safe, as it is not fundamentally any different than the Page class encapsulating this in the Session property.As I said,no other site on which my company has worked that used this pattern saw it ever have any issues -- and that includes some pretty large and highly active userbases.But I want to just get a fresh perspective.
Are there potential multi-user issues, race conditions, or other failings/flaws which specifically could cause session corruption in the above pattern?
I found lots of sites telling me how to put a database into single user mode, but how can I determine what mode a database is currently in?
View 2 RepliesI need to create a singleton that would hold lots of data for a spedesign patterns - Singleton behavior with multi-user requests in ASP.NETcific user. However, I am not unclear as to what the behavior of that singleton is in regard to multi-user app requests.
Here is the scenario:
On AppStart event I want to load common data for all users (from SQL) and store it as a collection somewhere within the ASP.NET storage mechanisms.
If I store that data in the cache, I would also have to create a static property in the Global.asax that would provide access to that the data from the cache.
This is not ideal because whenever an instance of any particular page, or generic handler, or what have you tries to query this data using Linq the property has to load the data from the cache... introducing latency. I need this data to be immediately available. (think of it as about 5K rows of data stored in collection of objects...)
I was thinking to use a singleton to get that data, and store it but I don't know how it would behave between requests (and postbacks), as well as application instances, in terms of its persistence.
On PostAuthenticate event I want to get user specific data from SQL in the form of a collection. If i store it as a singleton (in a similar manner as the common data) i am not clear as to:
How is the data persisted? What is the scope of that singleton (it should be for the duration of the user session). How can I ensure that the data is immediately available to whatever needs to consume it?
What happens between post-backs to that singleton? If another user logs in would another instance of that singleton be created for that specific application instance?
I have to choose between Server.transfer and Response.redirect for an Intranet application for navigation. I have chosen Server.Transfer as of now because it avoid extra round trip to server and which will help when so many users will be accessing the application. (I believe this is the main difference between reponse.redirect and server.transfer). But the problem is now that URL won't change on Server.Transfer(I don't want to implement Http headerS, as I am afraid it will take time to implement that).on redirection, I want to do something like taking benefit of server.redirect(in avoiding server processing, which happens in response.redirect) and changing the URL(as it happens in reponse.redirect).Can anyone please suggest a quick solution to it or may be help me Telling How many users can reponse.redirect can support ?
View 11 Repliesi am working on web application the problem i m facing is that if a user access saleorder form i goto database and get Max SID from saleorder table and increment in it, and when user finish i sent this id Saleorder table and other info as well as same SID to other 2 tables but the problem is that if multiple users access at samee time how can i manage SID there wil be id conflict as SID is PK in SaleOrder and FK in other two tables
View 4 RepliesI have a user control which contains a CustomValidator which is used according to whether a RadioButton is checked or not (there are several RadioButtons, I'm only showing the relevant one)
<asp:RadioButton runat="Server" ID="RadioBetween" GroupName="DateGroup" CssClass="date_group_options_control_radio" />
[code]...
There is some client + server side validation code (the server side code does exactly the same thing and is skipped for brevity)
<script type="text/javascript">
function ValidateDateFields_Client(source, args) [code]...
There are two instances of this control in the page. When running the client side version it hits the wrong one (the version of the control which is disabled). You can see from the generated HTML both are correctly specified. I'm not sure how .NET works out which clientside function to call given they both have the same name.
<script type="text/javascript">
//<![CDATA[
var ctl00_MCPH1_QueryTextValidator = document.all ? document.all["ctl00_MCPH1_QueryTextValidator"] : document.getElementById("ctl00_MCPH1_QueryTextValidator");
[code]...
Do i need to add something in to scope it? What's the best way to achieve this? If I disable the loading of the second control everything works fine.
im creating a multi step create user wizard for new members but I run into a problem. If the create of an account is in step 3 how do I capture the values from step 1 and 2. Should I try to pass the values to sessions or is there some other code. Here is some codebehind I tried so far (did not work).
[Code]....
[Code]....
[URL] how to handle item command event in above example?
View 1 Replies