I have a web user control. That I load dynamicaly inside a modalpopup window using dynamic populate extender. User control has a external javascript file linked to it. Problem: I cannot make call to webservice method from this external javascript file. When I make a call -- servicename.methodname() I get servicename not defined error.
View 2 RepliesI am trying to call a webservice method fom javascript.Every thing goes fine. But,problem is that, I can't return any value from the function.
View 3 RepliesI need to make a call to a json webservice from C# Asp.net. The service returns a json object and the json data that the webservice wants look like this:
"data" : "my data"
This is what I've come up with but I can't understand how I add the data to my request and send it and then parse the json data that I get back.
string data = "test";
Uri address = new Uri("http://localhost/Service.svc/json");
HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(address);
request.Method = "POST";
request.ContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8";
string postData = "{"data":"" + data + ""}";
How can I add my json data to my request and then parse the response?
I'm calling a webservice using jQuery with .ajaxHere are the data parameters for the call:
var parameters = "{'Titre':'" + Titre + "','Description':'" + Description + "','Contact':'" + Contact + "','VilleId':'" + VilleId + "','QuartierId':'" + QuartierId + "','UserId':'" + UserId + "'}";
It works fine. But when parameters Description or Titre contain the ' character , no call!!!
Does anyone have an idea how can i make it work even with apostrophe character in Titre and/or Description?
Configuration : Windows Vista,VS 2005,Ajax v1.0.61025 My Html Page
<html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml">
<head runat="server">
<title>Untitled Page</title>
<script language="javascript" type="text/javascript">
function fnCall()
{
try
{
var ans= Sim.Service.HelloWorld(OnMethodSucceeded, OnMethodFailed);
}
catch(e)
{
alert(e.message);
}
}
function OnMethodSucceeded(result)
{
alert('a');
}
function OnMethodFailed(result)
{
alert('b');
}
</script>
</head>
<body>
<form id="form1" runat="server">
<asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" ><Services>
<asp:ServiceReference Path="http://localhost/ajaxtest/service.asmx" /></Services>
</asp:ScriptManager>
<div><input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" onclick="fnCall();" /></div>
</form>
</body>
</html>
Web Service CS.
using System;
using System.Web;
using System.Web.Services;
using System.Web.Services.Protocols;
using System.Web.Script.Services;
namespace Sim
{
[WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")]
[WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)]
[System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)]
// To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line.
[System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService]
public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService
{
public Service()
{
//Uncomment the following line if using designed components
//InitializeComponent();
}
[WebMethod,ScriptMethod(UseHttpGet=true)]
public string HelloWorld()
{
return "Hello World";
}
}
}
But i am getting Sim is not defined. Error. post ur comments. I have reviewed most of the forums. I am not able to clear
I am calling a web service via Javascript. I tried it first in a web page that does not have a Masterpage and it worked perfectly. Then I moved everything over to a web page that does use a Masterpage, and I get a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object required" on the javascript statement that calls the web service. My javascript statements look like so:
[Code]....
The web service looks like:
[Code]....
The page source is:
[Code]....
I get this error "The server method xxx timed out." calling a WebService that internally does a hard query to the database, and takes some time. I use this method to change the webservice timeout, but it does not seems to do anything (the timeout errors appears in less than a second).
MyService.set_timeout(100000);
Pinging back to a webservice in ajax from the client keeps the user's session alive, I don't want this to happen. More extensive summary For a website we're developing, we need the client to ping back (in js) to a webservice (ASMX) on the server (IIS7.5). This happens to let the server know that the user is still on the site, and hasn't browsed away to another site. This is as our customer wants to let users lock records, but if they browse away to other sites, then let other people take over those locked records. Perhaps the distinction between the client being on the site but inactive and on another site seems unimportant, but that's kinda irrelevant, I don't get to write the UI spec, I just have to make it work.
My problem is this, the ping stops the user from being timed out on the server through the standard forms authentication timeout mechanism. Not surprising as there is that 30 second ping in the background keeping the session alive. Even though we want to know if the user is still on the site, we want the normal forms authentication timeout mechanism to be honoured. I thought I might be able to fix this by removing the ASP.NET_SessionId and .ASPXAUTH cookies in the XMLHttpRequest that is the server ping, but I can't figure out how to do this. This is how my web service & method are defined:
[WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")]
[WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)]
[ScriptService]
public class PingWS : WebService
{
[WebMethod]
public void SessionActive(string sessionID)
{
// does stuff here
}
This is how I'm calling it in js (request is over HTTPS, :
$.ajax({
type: "POST",
url: "PingWS.asmx/SessionActive",
data: 'sessionID=' + aspSessionID + '}',
beforeSend: function (xhr) {
xhr.setRequestHeader('Cookie', '');
xhr.setRequestHeader('Cookie', 'ASP.NET_SessionId=aaa; .ASPXAUTH=bbb;');
},
dataType: "json"
});
I was trying with the setRequestHeader, but that just appends to the header rather than overwrites the header, and IIS is happy to ignore that junk I added. I'm thinking maybe I should be trying to do this at the server end, someone take PingWS.asmx out of the loop so that it doesn't keep the session active, but I'm not sure how to do this. Although the title of the question is focused on clearing the cookie in the header, I'd be super happy if anyone points out that I'm being really stupid and there is actually a much better way of trying to do what I'm doing.
I'm thinking at this stage maybe I need to add something to the webmethod that says how long this particular page has been inactive, and use that knowledge to timeout manually. That actually sounds pretty easy, so I think I'll do that for now. I'm still convinced that there must be an easy way to do what I originally wanted to do though. Update I'm thinking I'm pretty screwed in terms of cookie manipulation here as both the .ASPXAUTH and ASP.NETSessionId cookie are HttpOnly, which means the browser takes them out of your hands, you can't access them via the document.cookies object. So I would say that leaves me with:
Updating my SessionAlive webmethod to track each request so I can tell how long the user has been sitting idle on a page and timeout if needs be Marking the .asmx page somehow on the server end so that it's taken out of the normal authentication/session tracking flow I know how to do 1. so I'll start there but 2. seems much cleaner to me.
I have an Asp.Net TextBox control whose enabled property I need to evaluate using a separate (from the code-behind of the containing page) class. The way I want to do this is:
<asp:TextBox ID="myTB" runat="server" Enabled="<% ToggleControl(this, "someBusinessValue") %>" ... />
The reason I need to pass a reference to the calling control is to see if there are other properties I may need to consider before disabling it. The 'this' keyword, however, refers to the page as a whole. And since my TextBox can be within a FormView, or GridView, I can't easily just get the control byexamining 'page.myTB'. I don't want to have to start ploughing through GridViews on the receiving class file just to retrieve a reference to the TextBox.Does anyone know how to refer to the control inline in this way?EDIT 1: This will need to be done to several different types of server control, such as ListBox, CheckBox, RadioButtonList, etc.EDIT 2: The best I've come up with so far is:
<asp:TextBox ID="myTB" runat="server" Enabled="<% ToggleControl(myGridView.FindControl("myTB") as WebControl, "someBusinessValue") %>"
I've enhanced my web service with a new method. If I open a browser and type the url of the service, I get a list of the methods including the new one, so that looks okay.
I have a snippet of code which I paste to a Firebug console to test the method, and I am getting a 500 internal server error. If I use the same snippet of code and modify it to test one of the other methods, that works fine.
What I can look at to figure out what is wrong with this new method? The other weird thing is if I try to run the URL on the server it says The test form is only available for requests from the local machine. But I am on the local machine. So I don't know if something is screwed up there, too, or it's the same cause or what.
I know there's tons of advice on the Internet regarding server 500 errors but this is unique in that my web service is working except for the new procedure.
I think I will write another new procedure that's simple (like Hello World) and see if I can call that. This new method returns a list of objects but so does one of the older methods, so I don't know what would be unusual there
I have a Site.Master in my ASP.NET project which defines a HEAD section as follows
<head runat="server">
<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" />
<title id="MasterTitle">MyApp</title>
<link rel="icon" href="Content/icon.ico" type="image/x-icon" />
<link href="Content/mycss.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />
<script src="Content/mycode.js" type="text/javascript"></script>
</head>
In the mycode.js file, I have a function called GetSels();
function GetSels()
{
//do stuff
}
If the GetSels function is defined in Site.Master, GetSels is callable. If it's in mycode.js, it's not. Every code example I've seen seems to say this should work.
My external javascript file named "messages.js" located in the "/scripts" directory:
[Code]....
How do I call this function from my codebehind? I need to register it through the client script manager right? Can someone provide me the call as I'm not sure how to add the function through an external file using type="text/javascript"
I was created webservice which has a Method:
[Code]....
Then, in my aspx page, i call that method in javascript, but i get a Exception message is "Authentication Failed", code below:
[Code]....
How to resolve this problem?
I am using autocomplete extender in my project with the external webservice. The problem what I am facing is I need to pass credentials to connect to the webservice, as this service is hosted in different domain.
View 4 RepliesI have an ActiveX object which extends some functions. I have a web page that loads the ActiveX object and calls its methods in Javascript. The ActiveX object has two method; the problem is that Javascript can successfully call one of them but fails to call the other; citing Object doesn't support this property or method which is nonsense because I made a VB6.0 application that successfully calls this other method, so the two functions are indeed extended correctly and performing their job. And yes, the Internet Explorer security zones are all set and everything, as I wrote above the javascript code can call one method but refuses to call the other.
View 1 RepliesI'm doing a project in asp.net with a web services. My web services and my asp.net project is separate and my asp.net projet have a reference of my web services. i'm using visual studio 2008 framework 3.5 and my service web is in vb.net. i want to call the web methods of my web services in javascript my script manager is declared
<asp:ScriptManager runat="server" ID="scriptManager" EnablePageMethods="true" >
<Services>
<asp:ServiceReference path="http://localhost:2931/ServiceCompas.asmx"/>
</Services>
</asp:ScriptManager>
the javascript fuctions
<script type="text/javascript">
function test() {
alert('test');
Service1.Liste_Carte(Onsucced);
}
function Onsucced(resultat) {
alert('je suis passée');
}
</script>
service1 is the class of my Webservice and i call the function test with my button <input name="btnRecherche" class="btnRechercher" type="button" value="Rechercher un emplacement" onclick="test()" /> the problem is : JavaScript say Service1 is not defined but why .... What's the problem ? I've checked many forums and videos every body did it
sorry for the french variable
all My web app is calling webservice which resides in same virtuall directory as web app . In this scenario i have a javascript function like this which works perfectly.
[Code]....
My javascript code is calling a asp.net webservice, so i have a call to the webservice something like this:MyWebservice.GetData(param, ResponseReceived, ResponseTimeOut, ResponseError);When the webservice returns data, ResponseReceived method is called.However sometimes the user might navigate to another url before the webservice call actually returns, in such a scenario FireFox throws an Error saying 'An error occured oricessubg the request. The server method GetData failed'So my question is how can i kill the async call when the user navigates to another page or makes another request to the webservice? I know in a normal XMLHttpRequest i could have called Abort method, but not sure how to make it work with the above webservice proxy.
View 2 RepliesI have a web method in my code behind:
[System.Web.Services.WebMethod]
public static string GetStateData(string state)
{
//this is where i want to call a javascript method "GetItems"
}
I have a javascript method that retrieves some values for me and I want to get use one of those values in my web method
function GetItems() {
var variable1= $("#<%=Item1.ClientID %> input:checked");
var variable2= $("#<%=Item2.ClientID %>").val();
return [variable1.text(), variable2.val(), variable2];}
I've searched for ways to call the javascript method from the web method but every time my search results in how to call a web method from javascript.
I did find this but it was done from the code-behind of a silverlight project and when I tried adding the correct reference to my code-behind it wasn't there
var result = HtmlPage.Window.Invoke("GetItems"); Is there a reference I'm missing?
Is there a simple way to turn off form submit behaviour of the page when ENTER is pressed while I am focused to textbox? What I want to achieve is to call a web-service without submiting the page when ENTER is pressed in a specific textbox in my aspx page?
View 1 Replieswhen i use embedded javascript functions i can get client id of elements with this code
for example : document.getElementById('<%=buttonXXX.ClientID%>' )
but now i am using external javascript file for caching and faster rendering
but this code does not work any more for getting client id's of elements
it gives error
how can i get client ids of elements at external javascript file using asp.net 2.0 , netframework 3.5 , c# , iis 7.5
is there a way to call a method in my C# code behind in my javascript ONLY when the javascript function is executed? Like onbeforeunload event?
View 2 RepliesHow can I make a call on a function of an external javascript file?
More specific...
In the head tag i have
<script type="text/javascript" src="JScript/FontSize.js"></script>
The external javascript file, (that i would like to call) FontSize.js contains the following functions.
[code]...
Of course nothing works as it should because, i do not know how to make the call to a function to an external js file
I have settings in AppSettings (web.config) and I need to pass them to an external javascript file.
In ASP.NET I would think of an ASHX handler to write the javascript file to the response replacing placeholders with the settings values.
I need to call a .cs method from JavaScript function; how can I do that?
View 2 Replies