I have settings in AppSettings (web.config) and I need to pass them to an external javascript file.
In ASP.NET I would think of an ASHX handler to write the javascript file to the response replacing placeholders with the settings values.
when i use embedded javascript functions i can get client id of elements with this code
for example : document.getElementById('<%=buttonXXX.ClientID%>' )
but now i am using external javascript file for caching and faster rendering
but this code does not work any more for getting client id's of elements
it gives error
how can i get client ids of elements at external javascript file using asp.net 2.0 , netframework 3.5 , c# , iis 7.5
How can I make a call on a function of an external javascript file?
More specific...
In the head tag i have
<script type="text/javascript" src="JScript/FontSize.js"></script>
The external javascript file, (that i would like to call) FontSize.js contains the following functions.
[code]...
Of course nothing works as it should because, i do not know how to make the call to a function to an external js file
I'm working on a C# web app and I've to handle some javascript code.
I can do it both using javascript injection from my .cs file, which I'm doing now or choose to include my code into an external js file.
I would like to know when you would prefer to choose one way over the other.
According to me, it can be more clear to put code in external .js file and it can ease debugging.
Code injection from code-behind would however keep together all the necessary code for my component.
I am developing a user control (ascx) in ASP.NET which uses javascript for manipulating controls. Currently the javascript code is inlined and uses <%= somecontrol.ClientID %> to get the control it needs.
I want to put the javascript file in external file but from external file I cannot use the above syntax for retrieving controls. I have read about possible solutions in this and this answers but the problem is that the user control can be placed multiple times on page. This means that the Controls array (mentioned in the answers) will be rendered several times with different items. As a result the script will not be able to retrieve the id it needs. If I put <%= ClientId %> in the name of array that holds items then I will have the same problem as I am trying to solve.
On load I'm both calling a JavaScript setTimeout() function that will hide a .NET Panel control, and hiding it in the code behind on first load. Clicking the save button will set the Panel to visible then reload the page at which point a setTimeout() function is called... so basically you click save, and see a panel with "Details Saved" for three seconds, at which point it disappears.
The problem is the external JavaScript file can't find _pDivAlert.ClientID (I've debugged and it returns null). It only works when the code is in a tag in the .aspx page. how I can either pass the client ID to the HideControl() function or find the ClientID from the external JS file?
Here's my code:
[code]...
I have a web user control. That I load dynamicaly inside a modalpopup window using dynamic populate extender. User control has a external javascript file linked to it. Problem: I cannot make call to webservice method from this external javascript file. When I make a call -- servicename.methodname() I get servicename not defined error.
View 2 Repliesi have stored settings in the AppSettings section of the web.config file.
I'm trying to access these settings via System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings, but the AppSettingsCollection is empty. So I can't access this settings.
The strange thing is that this is working on my development machine, but is failing on the production machine. Previous versions of the web application have also worked on the production machine. I'm not aware of any modifications that could couse this.
I have also tried using ConfigurationManager and WebConfigurationManager without success.
[Code]....
</script>
In the span's onclick handler i wrote "javascript: alert(getAppSetting('ftpuser'));" for testing, and built some alerts into the function. The first alert returns [object]. That's nice, i thought. The second alert returned 0. That's strange, because the web.config has exactly 1 of this node. So i guess that the function doesn't actually load the correct document. Has anyone done something similar ? When i don't suppy a full path, doesn't javascript assume that it should look for the file in the virtual directory of the current web application where the web.config is ?
Because of a restriction on our analytics software, we need to pass all calls to external weblinks through a page - direct clicks to external links don't get recorded.Our classic asp page was simple. We had a link to out.asp?urlname and the out.asp did a redirect. I'm trying to emulate this in MVC without success.On the homecontroller, I've got an action:
Function externalLink(Byval id as string) as ActionResult
Return RedirectToRoute(id)
End Function
I thought I was close with the following actionLink:
<%=Html.ActionLink("more info at HMRC", "externalLink", "Home", New With {.id = "www.hmrc.org.uk"}, DBNull.Value)%>
But the URL that is formed is /Home/externalLink/www.hmrc.org.uk .I've had a route in mapRoute, but taken it out as it didn't affect things. I've tried replacing .id with a paramater name like .url so the url becomes Home/externalLink?url=www.hmrc.org.uk but the problem is really that it can't find the resource
Requested URL:
/Home/externalLink
It does seem like a simple thing, but I guess I need to step away for a few hours and look at it again with fresh eyes - Sunday working wearing me out!
I'm calling an external Web service that requires a certificate to be passed. This works perfectly fine for a stand-alone Windows Forms application, but when I attempt to do the exact same thing through an ASP.NET Web Application, it throws the following error:
"No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it"
I found this MS article that describes what appears to be the exact issue I'm having, but it only applies to .NET 1.0:
[URL]
I'm using .NET 3.5, so surely it must be fixed by now!
I've attempted to change permissions on the certificate and fooled around with the app pool identity, but nothing seems to work.
What exactly we have in appSettings.config file. My company is using this file in the code to differentiate between Development and Production Environment.
View 10 RepliesI've got some question about two ways to save settings in the web.config.
Appsettings:
Look in web.config
<appSettings>
<add key="key1" value="value1"/>
<add key="key2" value="value2"/>
</appSettings>
Usage in code-behind:
ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["key1"];
ApplicationSettings/ Properties (autogenerated by using the 'properties'-tab in the project)
Look in web.config
<applicationSettings>
<Projectname.Properties.Settings>
<setting name="Testenvironment" serializeAs="String">
<value>True</value>
</setting>
</Projectname.Properties.Settings>
</applicationSettings>
Usage:
Properties.Settings.Default.Testenvironment
So, what the difference between these two storage possibilities of settings in the web.config? As far as I can see, a downside of the appSettings is that you have modify the web.config yourself and the appSettings are not strong tiped, where as the applicationSettings are. Both are replaceable with in a web deployment project.As far as I am concerned, there is no use for appSettings. Am I missing something here? Which is the historically seen older one?
I have something like this in mind:
<appSettings>
<add key="ConfigName" value="configuration" culture="1033" />
<add key="ConfigName" value="konfiguracja" culture="1045" />
[code]...
How to Encrypt App Settings in Web Config file in asp .net
View 1 RepliesDoes somebody knows how to access applicationSettings-Keys in web.config (NOT appSettings) from aspx.file like "<%? applicationSettings:Keyname %>? This seems to work only with the old "appSettings".
From code I can it access it with "Properties.Settings.Default.Keyname", thats clear.
i need add one key value in web.config and that values read in asp.net page and to bind that value to gridview?
View 1 RepliesI need to be able to add an external js file for a user control (using
this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude("SuggestionSearch",
"~/Secure/Shared/SuggestionSearch.js");
syntax)
But it puts the javascript file on the page too early... is there a way to put the file at the bottom of the page?
I have an external JavaScript in an asp.net 3.5 project. While writing different functions, sometimes the JavaScript is loaded into FF and sometimes it is not (based on FireBug) and the JavaScript does not run.
Even if there is an error in the JS it should still load or be visible to the browser, right?
What is the logic behind when it is loaded and when it doesn't load (or is accessible to the browser?)
Master Page loads JS from a script directory in project:
[code]...
I have a code like
var mySession = "<%= Session["MyID"] %>";
alert ( mySession );
and when I place this code in my aspx page inside a script tag, it works fine. But it doesn't work in an external js file. I am not able to figure out the problem.
Is there anything wrong in my code, or is it like this by default?
I need to access controls of aspx page and usercontrol page through the external .js file. I created a global varaible in the aspx page
<script language="javascript" type="text/javascript">
var loadPanelID = "<%=ajaxLoadingPanel.ClientID%>";
</script>
Now I pass this value in the onclick event of button click (Let the funtion name be Fun(loadPanelID) ) . The controls is recognised in the .js file. Everything is fine till now. Now i need to call the same javascript method Fun() from the button click of usercontrol.
<script language="javascript" type="text/javascript">
var loadPanelID = "<%=ajaxLoadingPanel1.ClientID%>";
</script>
I have ajaxLoadingPanel1 in the usercontrol and I have defined global variable as in the first one in ascx and passed that value to Fun() method. But this time it gives error called "loadpanelID" is undefined.
I have a Site.Master in my ASP.NET project which defines a HEAD section as follows
<head runat="server">
<meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" />
<title id="MasterTitle">MyApp</title>
<link rel="icon" href="Content/icon.ico" type="image/x-icon" />
<link href="Content/mycss.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />
<script src="Content/mycode.js" type="text/javascript"></script>
</head>
In the mycode.js file, I have a function called GetSels();
function GetSels()
{
//do stuff
}
If the GetSels function is defined in Site.Master, GetSels is callable. If it's in mycode.js, it's not. Every code example I've seen seems to say this should work.
My external javascript file named "messages.js" located in the "/scripts" directory:
[Code]....
How do I call this function from my codebehind? I need to register it through the client script manager right? Can someone provide me the call as I'm not sure how to add the function through an external file using type="text/javascript"
I would like to display an output on an external website by including a javascript on that external website.
On my aspx-site i did:
[Code]....
I only get a white page on my external site :(
I'm using visual studio 2010 professional. I have my javascript files in a subdirectory called javascripts where I am holding all those files respectively. I am constantly having to remove (from the head section) the external javascript link. Then rename the javascript file in the javascript's folder, then re-add the external file back to the head section again. The reason of having to do this is somethimes when I am editing the js file, and then go to test it, the aspx page doesnt seem to see the code anymore. I've tried different browsers, closing the window and reopening, deleting temp int files, but all to no success. Has anyone else had this happen, is there a better workaround??if i open the js file in the browser, the functions are showing properly.
View 2 Replies