I would like to create a route that looks something like this:
routes.Add(new Route("{*url}/{action}.do/{id}", new MvcRouteHandler())
Is this possible? It seems like the catchall has to be last?
I want to define a route that have 2 optional parameters in the middle of the URL the start an end parameters are digits
[Code].....
In Area VIPUsers I have controller ProfileController and other controllers.
If I want every method in ProfileController to have parameter (id) and every method in other controllers to have parameter (userid and id) how would I map it?
Would it be
context.MapRoute("ProfileMapping", "VIPUsers/Profile/{action}/{id}",
new {controller="ManageUsers", id=""});
and then map a default one for all the controllers?
context.MapRoute("Default", "VIPUsers/{controller}/{action}/{userId}/{id}",
new {action="Index", userId="", id = ""});
If I go to a page on ProfileController and give it two parameters after {action} (VIPUsers/Profile/SomeAction/4/4/), it'd use the second mapped route. Is that correct?
I am using a third party service that does an async callback to a URL I provide to them. So I tell them to use [URL] This must obviously map to an Incoming() method on my StatusController.
However, what I don't have control over is the format of the parameters they call my URL with. E.g. They will do a callback such as: [URL] I want to map this to the parameters of my action method: Incoming(string param1, string param2, int param3)
How do I do this?
I trying to create routes for a resource with an array of homogeneous parameters.
URL would look like this:
products/category/{categoryId1}/{categoryId2}/.../brand/{brandID1}/{brandID2}/...
And would like an action method would look like this:
public ActionResult GetProducts(IList categoryID, ILIsts brandID)
{...}
where category and brand are independent filters.
I found a solution for similiar task:
[URL]
And wonder if there is no more beautiful solution that allow to use this prototype public ActionResult GetProducts(IList categoryID)
instead of public ActionResult myAction(string url)for action method to avoid splitting the string and casting?
I get a 404 error when I navigate to the following URL using the route below:
http://localhost:53999/properties/
However, all the following are correctly routed to the List action in my controller:
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa/new-york/manhattan/12
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa/new-york/manhattan
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa/new-york
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa [Code]....
In PropertiesController.cs: [Code]....
It looks like it should just go to the default controller/action,
[Code]....
here PublisherId is one parameter , i need to pass another parameter like Type in above line. I have tired but json fucntion wont call
Does outputcaching VaryByParams in webforms understand route parameters? Such that if I have a route similar to "Content/{filename}/{more}" that I could do VaryByParams="filename" and have it return cached results based on filename and ignore any values in the more?
View 1 RepliesI have a details page containing a form field named UserId. On the same page i have another search form with a field also named UserId.
I am using Html.LabelFor(vm > vm.UserId) and Html.TextBoxFor(sm > sm.UserId) on the two different view models, vm being the view model and sm being the search model. (Yes, the UserId property on the two models has identical names - because they are the same domain property.
When i navigate to the page, the populated UserId on the vm is inserted into BOTH form fields named UserId by MVC. Even the sm.UserId are empty.
That is my initial problem. There are a few ways ti avoid that. My solution was to use the Prefix flag for the sm.
[code]...
My problem is that MVC can't map the Search.UserId (because of the .) to fit the UserId (prefixed with Search) in the action shown above.
So it seems like MVC has a prefix-feature, that are actually nok fully supported through the Route-handler.
Ofcourse i could rename the Search.UserId to Search_UserId, but then the name dosent match the name MVC expects in the recieving action above. (expects Search.UserId) Renaming The UserId property of the search model would fix the issue, but since it is the same value in the domain, this seems like a workaround.
I tried to mix asp.net 4 webfrom and ASp.Net MVC 3. I add required lines in webconfig, but I've issues implementing route in global.asax
Currently I use several routes for webfroms. routs template are like below
routes.MapPageRoute("Node", _
"article/sport/{nID}/", _
"~/article/articleview.aspx")
I encounter error, when I add below lines to global.asax
routes.MapRoute( _
"Defaultss", _
"{controller}/{action}/{id}", _
New With {.controller = "Home", .action = "Index", .id = UrlParameter.Optional} _
)
I want to know how could I mix ASp.Net MVC routes with webforms routes.
when i run the app i got this error
A route named 'Admin_default' is already in the route collection. Route names must be unique.
Parameter name: name
this is my AdminAreaRegistration
[Code]....
I have a url that I want to map routing to:
[URL]
where tabvalue is one of: "personal", "professional", "values" or nothing.
I want to map it to a route like:
Member/Edit/{tab}
But my problem is - I don't know how to specify such constraints. I'm trying this regex:
^[personal|professional|values]{0,1}$
but it only works when I use url
[URL]
[URL]
and doesn't work for
[URL]
how to specify the correct constraint?
P.S. I'm not using MVC, just asp.net WebForms
Was looking at asp.net mvc complex routing for tree path as an example of how to define a custom route handler for my MVC app. Essentially, I want to give the end user ultimate flexibility in defining the URL for any given page, so I provide them with a field in the interface to specify their own custom URL.
My custom route handler is basically a wild-card handler. It will do a lookup and if it finds a match, map it accordingly. However, if no match is found, I want it to fall back and find the next rule that matches in the global.asax. Is that possible? Or do I essentially need to code the mappings that used to exist in my global.asax into my custom route handler?
[Code]....
When I want to get the output values its okay but I also want returning a table as a result data.But Datareader has no rows.is it possible if I want a returning query result and multiple output values togather ?I wrote a test above.I can get output values as sqlparameters. But Datareader attached to a Gridview is empty.can you detect whats wrong here and it doesnt return a query result.So stored procedure is not standart or ı am doing something wrong.this doesnt raise any exception.but not returning any data.
[code]....
Since ASP.NET MVC3 RC2 I encounter a bug when posting values to a controller method of which one of the parameter is a nullable int. Steps to reproduce:
I've created a test method
[code]....
In MVC3 RC1 this was working without any problems with the nullable int
Update:
I don't seem to have the problem with a newly created MVC3 website. What could I have in my project that influence model binding to nullable int's? And why would there be a difference between RC1 and RC2?
I am using jquery ajax method on my aspx page,which will invoke the webmethod in the code behind.Currently the webmethod takes a couple of parameters like firstname,lastname,address etc which I am passing from jquery ajax method using
data:JSON.stringify({fname:firstname,lname:lastname,city:city})
now my requirement has been changed such that,the number and type of parameters that are going to be passed is not fixed for ex.parameter combination can be something like fname,city or fname,city or city,lname or fname,lname,city or something else.So the webmethod should be such that it should accept any number parameters.I thought of using arrays to do so, as described here.
But I do not understand how can I identify which and how many parameters have been passedto the webmethod to insert/update the data to the DB.
here is my code for selectiong some records from db table
string strSql = "select * from mtblNBD where SentTo=@SentTo and InternalStatus Is NULL order by DeadLine desc";
SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand(strSql, con);
com.Parameters.Add("@SentTo", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 50).Value = (string)Session["uname"];
here I am using parameters for SenTo field but not for NULL so it is ok... or should I use parameters for this field where value is NULL , if yes then how can I use parameter for this
I want to do the following:
routes.MapRoute("testwithoutcontroller", "Overview/Index/{year}", new {year = 2010});
But it fails when I call Overview/Index/2010 and gives me this error:
The RouteData must contain an item named 'controller' with a non-empty string value.
What must I do in order to only have Overview/Index be possible for my route?
I have two examples to show you what I want to achieve here. But to point what's different about my question, Is that I'm having a parametrized URLs and I want to implement URL rewriting to my application. But I don't want to convert the parameter in the URL to be placed between slashes..."page.aspx?number=one" to "pages/one/" << NOT!
First example:
http://localhost:1820/Pages/Default.aspx?page=2&start=5
To
http://localhost:1820/Pages/page2
Second example:
http://localhost:1820/Items/Details.aspx?item=3
To
http://localhost:1820/Items/ItemName
But I'll still need all the parameters in the original URLs
When I do an Html.RenderAction( action, controller, new { varName = value } ); if the original request had a parameter equal to varName, then the value is not changed in a render action.
Example:
1. Post to "C1/A1" with a string var _test = "abc"
2. Inside C1/A1 get some data and return a partial view
3. Inside the partial view I invoke an action on another controller. The action has an input variable with the same name and type (string _test) Html.RenderAction( "A2","C2", new {_test="fgh"});
4. the value in _test that arrives at C2/A2 is still "abc"
I've traced through it step by step, and the value used in the view render action call is correct, but in the next trace step, the value received at C2/A2 is incorrect.
If this is not an error, and creating a new route value to pass in render action is not the correct way to handle this, what is?
I'm using ASP.Net 4 URL routing on a web forms site.
I have multiple routes to a single page
routes.MapPageRoute("","our-services", "~/Information.aspx");
routes.MapPageRoute("","our-company", "~/Information.aspx");
On the destination page (Information.aspx) how can I tell which route was used to get there, for example was it from our-services or our-company?
i'm new to routing in aspnet mvc.. i have following code:
[code]....
when i enter "localhost/school" in addressbar, it is giving 404 error instead it should route to my "schoolIndex" action
i have given route-name as "School" where it is used ?
How to route url contains # sharp character like this:
~/page.aspx#/Home
to be:
~/Home
I am an C# ASP.NET developer. I am trying to route URL from one domain to another using Godaddy IIS Virtual dedicated server or Dedicated server for ASP.NET.
For example I have a website application for client_A in my server which is intended to be use by multiple clients with different products.
An example URL: www.myserver.com/client_A/product/bear/?productid=1 or using pretty URL www.myserver.com/A_Application/product/bear/1
I would like to setup for my client to point to client_A using his/her domain.
My Client example URL will be: www.hisserver.com/product/bear/?productid=1 or using pretty URL www.hisserver.com/product/bear/1
I have made an asp.net mvc 3 application with an area called blog. I want to route this area to my subdomain blog.mywebsite.com. How can I achieve this?
How do I need to define my route? Do I have to configure the DNS?
Currently I just use the default area route. I can access my blog area for now at this way.
mywebsite.com/blog
