I have an arraylist namelist in my model and in my view I need to fill the textarea with the values in the arraylist?
With this, I am having a textarea for every value in the namelist, how can I solve this?
<%foreach (string category in Model.namelist) {%> <%=Html.TextArea("name", Html.Encode(Model.namelist))%> <%} %>
Using MVC2, I want to know how you add the options of a dropdownlist from a database. I have several lookup lists so I will need to do this many times. I'm stuck on part 5 of the MusicStore (which is using MVC3) at this part
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Alternatively if someone could recommend an MVC2 tutorial which covers drop lists.
I'm working with an MVC1.0 web app and I've found a bit of an odd anomaly.
I have a search box on the first page (normal text box) and the input from this is passed through to the ViewData and on to the second page.
On the second page, I render a TextArea with this search input text from the ViewData.
Eg:
[Code]....
The problem is, there is an extra line break in the TextArea, just above the original text.
Stranger still is that if I now submit this page and the view is reloaded (after validation fails) - the original string of text has been trimmed and has no line breaks, but the TextArea now has 2 line breaks above the original text.
This can be repeated - every time the page reloads it has another line break.
It's driving me insane - does anyone have an idea on how to fix this?
FYI, you can check it out yourself - on your mobile phone, browse to [URL], punch something in the search box and hit search. You'll notice one line break added the first time the page loads. Then just hit "Find Best Offer" without entering a budget or selecting a category, and you'll see what I mean about the additional line breaks.
i want to create a arraylist which will able to store user info like (username,machineIP,port ) for each user in the list & retrive this data when needed . any one tell me how i can do it or any alternative way without database or xml file.
View 6 RepliesI'm building an MVC 2 RTM app, and I want to be able to share my model across applications. I'd *like* to be able to implement it like:ASP.NET MVC2 app (holds Views and Controllers)Class library to hold Model(s)WCF app to handle the data transactions with the models via different data stores across apps I had the MVC app working fine, but I wanted to abstract the data stuff and be able to work with the model across apps through the WCF site, so I created a class library project and moved all of the Models classes into that and set-up a WCF app, then added project references to the MVC and WCF apps that point at the class library. The idea was I can create services that take and return objects from the model via method calls across apps. It appears that everything's wired up correctly in the MVC project, so I'm passing the objects stored in the Models class library between controllers and views and everythig is compiling just fine, but for some reason the data is not being passed back from the views to the controller on POST -- all of the properties in the classes are null or empty.
When I debug the app, I can see that the values are stored in the model data dictionary but not the model object itself. What am I doing wrong? Am I on the wrong path, or missing something obvious (to some)?
Is it possible, inside a Custom Model Binder, to fire "something" that "says" the value is invalid so it gets handled by validation part?
Basically, I am getting an exception when the value for the property is invalid.
I made a few changes to the DB in SQL server management studio then right clicked on the .edmx doc to get it to update. That seemed to work fine but when i compiled the app everything that referenced the EF seems to be broken.The Error list now contains the below error for all classes that used it.
The type or namespace name '' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)
I have an issue of static variable in an asp.net application. Let's say I have a server with 8 CPUs running windows 2008 R2 hosting an asp.net webbsite, nothing fancy here, no funny configuration.
Is the following statement true? at any single time, there's one and only one process is running and accepting requests, even in the recycling stage. The reason I am asking is: I have a static field in my class, and I want to make that's the only static instance in the website. I've heard in some circumstances, IIS is recylcing your application, and it will start a new process, but the old process is still working, thus I will have 2 static instances in memory, which defeat the purpose of static field.
One step further, let's assume there might be 2 instances in memory, can I assume there are at most 2 instances at any single time? And can I assume once the second instance is up, the first instance will NEVER accept new requests?
Another question: Recently I have a problem with an applicationdomain concept. Looks like if an application domain causes a memory leak, unload the domain will not release the memory (Umanaged leak). So to what extent Application Domain is isolated?
I am trying to make a post that should use the Default Model Binder functionality in ASP.NET MVC 2 but unfortunately I can't get through. When I click on the checkout button I populate a form dinamically using jQuery code and then submit this form to the server. This is the form that get submitted
<form action="/x/Order/Checkout" id="cartForm" method="post">
<input name="__RequestVerificationToken" type="hidden" value="UDjN9RdWheKyWK5Q71MvXAbbDNel6buJd5Pamp/jx39InuyYIQVptcEubIA2W8DMUzWwnZjSGkLspkmDPbsIxy8EVuLvfCSZJJnl/NrooreouptwM/PaBEz2v6ZjO3I26IKRGZPqLxGGfITYqlf8Ow==">
<input id="CustomerID" name="CustomerID" type="hidden" value="1">
<input id="FirmID" name="FirmID" type="hidden" value="2">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[0].ServiceTypeID" value="1">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[0].Quantity" value="1">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[1].ServiceTypeID" value="2">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[1].Quantity" value="1">
</form>
This is the jQuery code that handle the submit event for the form
$("#cartForm").submit(function (event) {
event.preventDefault(); var form = $("#cartForm");
var panel = form.parent(); panel.parent().block();
$.ajax({ type: "post", dataType: "html",
url: '<%: Url.Content("~/Order/Checkout") %>',
async: false, data: form.serialize(),
success: function (response, status, xml) { panel.parent().unblock(); },
error: function (response) { panel.parent().unblock(); } }); });
This is the controller action that should be get called
[HttpPost]
[ValidateAntiForgeryToken]
public virtual ActionResult Checkout( CartModel cart ) {
} And finally this is the CartModel class involved
public class CartModel : BaseModel{
public int CustomerID { get; set; }
public int FirmID { get; set; }
public List<CartItemModel> CartItems { get; set; }
public CartModel() { CartItems = new List<CartItemModel>();
} } public class CartItemModel : BaseModel
{ public int ServiceTypeID { get; set; }
public int Quantity { get; set; } }
But the default Model Binder does not bind the web form data to a CartModel class. Using Fiddler I have been able to see that the data sent to the server is correct as you can see from the following snapshot.
when I use Html.HiddenFor( model => model.OwnerId ) to create a hidden field, the value assigned to that field is zero. When I use <input type="hidden" value="<%: Model.OwnerId %>" /> to add the hidden field to the form, the value is assigned correctly.
Why would Html.HiddenFor( model => model.OwnerId ) not get the correct value from the Model object? Am I supposed to load model state somehow separate from returning the model object from the action method? Here is the view:
[Code]....
The Create action method is relatively straight forward.
public ActionResult Create( ... )
{
ViewStockItem item = new ViewStockItem();
item.ActionCode = ActionCode.Add;
if (item.OwnerId == 0)
item.OwnerId = 7;
BookOwner owner = db.BookOwners.Single(c => c.OwnerId == item.OwnerId);
item.OwnerName = owner.OwnerName;
return View(item);
}
I've been used to decorating data model classes with data annotation attributes, but the purist in me baulks slightly at including purely presentational attributes such as display format here. I am, however, quite happy to keep validation centric attributes here. One good reason I have to continue keeping all annotations etc. in the data model is that my view model aggregates data model classes, e.g.
my ViewModelBase.DetailItem<TEntity> property in the view model is just a reference to an entity class in my data model. If I wanted to move presentational annotations to the view model, I would have to quite radically revise my design to one where I duplicate data model properties in my view model and use an object mapping tool to populate view model objects based on data model objects.
[code]....
Say I got a domain model as follows: (and my repository expect an instance of this object)
[Code]....
And a view model (which my views are based on)
[Code]....
At the moment I got it like this and have my controller action manually create a new Person object from the PersonModel object before passing it on to the repository, which does not feel right.
So I tried to have PersonModel inherit from Person and pass that to the repository (also tried casting the PersonModel to a Person object first), but that don't work out.
What's the right way to have PersonModel automatically cast to Person? I want to keep this logic as my current structure allow me to keep things really loosely coupled, with the repository layer not having a clue how it's being used.
How to add links in a TextArea using MVC? This one doesn't look good. [:(]
<%=Html.TextArea("textarea_name", "<a href=""/link_1/"">Text 1</a>", "<a href=""/link_2/"">Text 2</a>")%>
I have a WYSIWYG editor set up using ASP.NET MVC. When I post, everything is fine, however when I post and there is an error when the page comes back and shows the errors, the value in the textbox is messed up (it has become un-HTML Encoded) and for form validation reasons, this is fine. My question is this - how, in the controller (preferably), can I change the value of the text in the textarea? Even if I use a ViewData["fieldname"] and set the asp code to:
<%= Html.TextArea("fieldname", ViewData["fieldname"], new { id = "fieldthing", name = "fieldthing", cols = "80", rows = "10" })%>
It still doesn't work because that ViewData is the default value which, after the post, isn't returned to that value, it stays whatever was typed.
So any thoughts on how to edit this value? I tried passing in a new view, but that didn't work either.
I am tring to ignore the textbox error message that textbox mode is multiline .
Here code that ignore normal textbox
$('#aspnetForm input[type=text]').addClass('ignore');
what the code for textbox mode is multiline ?
I have an email page that consists of your typical master page/ content area setup. I have a master.css page for the masterpage and I'm linking in another css file for the content area on the page_load event. The page loads correctly but inside the textarea is the css code for everything after the textarea box. I've looked over the the source and can't find any unmatched css tags. Does anyone have a suggestion as to what might cause this?
View 7 RepliesUsing IE6+, what is the maximum amount of text you can POST with a <textarea> before something breaks?
Edit: The answer I'm hoping for is "there's no way you could actually type something meaningful and unmallicious into a textarea and crash Internet Explorer."
I have a html textarea in my form, and when I postback the form, the value of textarea gets lost. I want the value of this textarea to be restored.I know that for restoring the value of textbox, I can directly use value=@Response["TextBoxName"], but this is not valid for text area, so I request you to suggest me a solution.
View 5 RepliesThis code won't work. how to set the text area?
[Code]....
I have a textarea and i am using a plugin for that textarea. In that plugin there is a function getCode() which will return the value of the textarea. That function will be called like - textarea_id.getCode(); I am using ASP.NET in which i have declared the textarea (runat=server), and the textarea'a id i can get but when i am writing the following code it is not calling the method.
'<%= txtName.ClientID %>'.getCode();
But if i am writing then it is working fine.
ctrl001_txtxName.getCode();
Because the first one is a string and the second one i guess is an object. If so then how to overcome this problem.
Code Block
Plugin = function(obj)
{
var self = document.createElement('iframe');[code]....
I want to insert textarea value into database as when user press enter in textarea that pertucular value before pressing enter btn should be insert in one row.
For example, if I wrote in textarea in this format
Monika,
Ritu,
Archana
Then in database it should enter as:
Monika in one row
Ritu in second row
Archana in thid row
The textarea i have used is
<asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine"></asp:TextBox>
I'm using MVC, and i'm building my own basic blogging engine. I need to be able to allow HTML input to be submitted to the server so it can be added to a database. I only want HTML input allowed in that textarea alone, but I still want my other validation like StringLength etc. How could I do this?
View 4 RepliesHow to apply required field validator for<textarea> in html
Not the textbox<asp:textbox mode="multiline">
I added a textarea control to my page. Try to reference it in codebehind and it doesn't show in the intellisense. All other controls are though. I noticed that it also doesn't appear in the 'designer.cs' page.
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Somebody knows the answer? I'm using L2S with field ntext in my db
View 1 Replies