I have a project made with inline code. How can I most quickly move inline code to codebehind for each webform? First, how can I add a codebehind page aspx.c or aspx.vb to one that doesn't have one?
View 3 RepliesHow can I achieve the desired effect?
Here's the code:
<% if(!String.IsNullOrEmpty(%><%#Eval(Container.DataItem,"OrderXml");%><%)){ %>
etc., which is placed inside of an ItemTemplate inside of a TemplateColumn. In the CodeBehind page I will bind a value to the OrderXml field, which occasionally is NULL.
Unfortunately I get compilation errors.
In ASP.NET if the code and the asp.net markup is in one ascx file for example for a user control,would it perform poorly compared to a User control with Code Behind using a cs file and a designer.cs file?
View 3 RepliesI have a project that suddenly the webusercontrols starting to ignore the codeBehind files.
When ever I click a button it setups a inline button click event in the ascx file
[code]....
Why does my VS2008 suddenly start to use inline click event instead of using the codebehind ascx.cs file that I want?
Are there any differences between coding row-specific stuff inline within the repeater's template and doing so in the codebehind file in ItemDataBound?
EDIT: Re: differences - I think we're all agreed it makes for markup that's nasty to read/maintain :) I was thinking of performance benefits.
I have some markup on a page which I need to move to a code behind and I'm not quite sure how to do it
An example is this
<asp:DropDownList ID="YearList" runat="server">
<asp:ListItem Value="1940" Title="1940" />
<asp:ListItem Value="1950" Title="1950" />
<asp:ListItem Value="1960" Title="1960" />
<asp:ListItem Value="1970" Title="1970" />
Would the codebehind become
With YearList
.Value(0)="1940"
.Text(0)="1940"
End With
I have working code similar to the following in my Detailsview:
<asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource3" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:DATABASE %>"
SelectCommand="SELECT Id, PracticeId, FirstName, LastName, Notes FROM Providers WHERE Id=@Id"
UpdateCommand="UPDATE Providers SET
PracticeId = @PracticeId,
FirstName = @FirstName,
LastName = @LastName,
Notes = @Notes
WHERE Id = @Id"
InsertCommand="INSERT INTO Providers (
PracticeId, FirstName, LastName, Notes
) VALUES (
@PracticeId, @FirstName, @LastName, @Notes)">
<SelectParameters>
<asp:QueryStringParameter Name="Id" QueryStringField="Id" Type="String" />
</SelectParameters>
<UpdateParameters>
<asp:Parameter Name="Id" Type="Int32" />
<asp:Parameter Name="PracticeId" Type="Int32" />
<asp:Parameter Name="FirstName" Type="String" />
<asp:Parameter Name="LastName" Type="String" />
<asp:Parameter Name="Notes" Type="String" />
</UpdateParameters>
<DeleteParameters>
<asp:Parameter Name="Id" Type="Int32" />
</DeleteParameters>
</asp:SqlDataSource>
I would like to move all of this to codebehind so it's easier to work with programmatically. For instance the PracticeId is a selection from a dropdownlist that is populated from another table... i need to determine what the current selection is first so i can display the record / bind properly.
I have a page with a Textbox, a Button and a Label control. On Button_Click event , I store the value of Textbox in a variable called S using code behind.
I want to show the value of S in the Lable control using inline code but not using the code behind. ?
How to Use a Variable Defined in Code Behind File on inline code for same page..
View 7 RepliesIn code behind, I get a value that I need to pass to my inline code i.e. <%= myStringVariable %>. How do this?
P.S. The value that I'm trying to send is for a third party control's property. Something like this:
<xyz:SomeThirdPartyControl ID="myID1" runat="server" SomeProperty="<%= myStringVariable %>" />
I have below code in aspx.cs but I need to move this code to the web services which may not be able to share session with UI.
How can I do??
If (Session["Pick1#" + Productid.ToString()] == null)
{
}
else
inventoryList.AddRange((Inventory.ListInventory)Session["Pick1#" + Productid.ToString()]);
I want to move some code from code behind file to web page such as
[Code]....
My question is in the code behind file there is
[Code]....
Do I need to move these stuff into web page?
Also can I declare global variables in the web page?
Is it possible to do things in a PHPish way in ASP.Net? I've seen <%= %> but I've tried it and couldn't get it to work. The PHPish equivalent of what I want to do is
<script src="<?php echo ResolveUrl("jquery/js/jquery.js"); ?>"></script>
I set the element height value by using inline code
View 4 RepliesI have aspx page where there is no code behind. Server side Code written inside tag with runat server attribute.
ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this.GetType(), "Email", "GetEmail();");
in page_load() event, it just print GetEmail(); when page load
html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml">
<head>
<script type="text/javascript" language="javascript">
function GetEmail()
[code]...
I've been using code behind files since day one. Now, I have this funky example that uses inline code. How do I use inline code that needs to be executed in Page_Load() while VS still gives me a code behind page? Do I remove the Page_Load event from code behind file?
View 2 Replies<form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" >
Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted.
The actual result of this is the following html:
<form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" id="form1">
The url ends up like this:
http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>
Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused.
To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0.
Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped.
Edit
Ok, I found a "fix"
<form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' >
But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.
I have a simple user control (myControl.ascx) , in the myControl.ascx.cs file, I defined:
public string sUserName
{
get
{
return _sUserName;
}
set
{
_sUserName = value;
populateData();
}
}
In one of my aspx page, I use this control:
[Code]....
myNameSapce.Config.sType is a public value from a class, I just can't get that value for above inline code, is it possible to do that? Otherwise, I need go to the .cs file to do this: myControl1.sUserType = myNameSapce.Config.sType; But still hope I can do the inline code.
Here's the code I have.
[Code]....
I'm not sure about the PostBackUrl property of the btnSubmit button. When I run the page, I got this error:
Input string was not in a correct format.
Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code.
Exception Details: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format. Source Error:
[Code]....
I'm updating my old .aspx views with the new Razore view engine. I have a bunch of places where I have code like this:
<span class="vote-up<%= puzzle.UserVote == VoteType.Up ? "-selected" : "" %>">Vote Up</span>
Ideally I'd like to do this:
<span class="vote-up@{puzzle.UserVote == VoteType.Up ? "-selected" : ""}">Vote Up</span>
However there's two problems here:
vote-up@{puzzle.UserVote .... is not treating the @ symbol as a start of a code block @puzzle.UserVote == VoteType.Up looks at the first part @puzzle.UserVote as if it's supposed to render the value of the variable.
How can I call a .net method in inline code using a javascript variable?My code looks like this:
for ( var i = 0; i < numberIterations; i++ )
{
var result = <%# GetFilterTagURL( myArray[i].Value, false) %>;
//do stuff with result
}
This block is inside a javascript block; the GetFilterTagURL method is a a .net method and I want to pass the variable myArray[i].Value as the first parameter.
UPDATE:I guess that, as you say, I'll have to create a web service to achieve what I want.
I tried to assign the value of button text through the following syntax where MyValue is the public variable with the value "Checkout" in the code behind.
[Code]....
But it turned out that it displayed <%=MyValue%> instead of "Checkout". Yes of course I can still assign button text value in the code behind but just don't know if there is any other solutions to it.
EXISTING CODE:
<asp:HyperLink ID="HyperLinkG102" runat="server" Visible='<%# (Convert.ToInt32(Eval("L_ID")) != 77777 ) %>' Text='<%# Eval("L_GalleryName") %>' NavigateUrl='<%# String.Format(".... /findlink.aspx?linknum={0}", Eval("L_ID")) %>' Target="_blank" Font-Size="9"
ForeColor="Blue"></asp:HyperLink>
Is there anyway to put an OR conditional in the Visible text?
( Visible='<%# (Convert.ToInt32(Eval("L_ID")) != 77777 ) OR Visible='<%# (Convert.ToInt32(Eval("L_Rank")) != 0 ) %>' )
When writing inline code in an .aspx file and some lines down closing a statement with <% } %>, Visual Studio tries to be nice but messes it up by rewriting it all. Is there any way of turning this rewriting off, but only for inline code?
View 2 RepliesWhat do you prefer? I watched a video about making a gridview and its function, and it only took about 6minutes, including the sort, delete, edit.
I don't know the difference of the two but I have made a registration form using code behind and i'm planning to make a gridview inline coding.