I'm making a custom MembershipProvider and RoleProvider.
I have database tables with Roles and UsersInRoles and I use LINQ-to-SQL to create objects of the tables.
When invoking [Authorize] on an action method, will it work with my custom RoleProvider?
How does it know if the user is authenticated and if the user is in the appropriate role?
I have a web application that accesses a database through a wcf service. The idea is to abstract the data from the web application using the wcf service. All that works fine but I am also using the built in roleprovider using the SqlRoleManager which does access the aspnetdb database directly. I would like to abstract the roleprovider by creating a custom roleprovider in a wcf service and then accessing it through the wcf service.
I have created the custom role provider and it works fine but now I need to place it in a wcf service. So before I jump headlong into trying to get this to work through the WCF service, I created a second class in the web application that accessed the roleprovider class and changed my web config roleprovider parameters to use that class. So my roleprovider class is called, "UcfCstRoleProvider" and my web.config looks like this:
<roleManager
enabled="true"
defaultProvider="UcfCstRoleProvider">[code]....
But I get this error."Provider must implement the class 'System.Web.Security.RoleProvider'."
I hope I have explained well enough to show what I am trying to do. If I can get the roleprovider to work through another class in the same application, I am sure it will work through the WCF service but how do I get past this error?Or maybe I took a wrong turn and there is a better way to do what I want to do??
I have the Index action method calling a method that itself is an action method.
Example :
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What to do in this case ?
I have created a custom MembershipProvider and RoleProvider which communications with some existing business logic. The issue I have is that the user login in my business logic requires 3 arguments (group id, user id, and password) and the MembershipProvider and RoleProvider I implemented just use 1 or 2 arguments (username, password). Right now I append my group id and user id together and pass it as the username then parse it in the implemented methods. Is there a better way to do this?
Note, I can handle the login fine because I can call my own ValidateUser method. The main issue is when the implemented methods are called from other things like the RoleProvider.GetRolesForUser(username) method when I use the AuthorizeAttribute.
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I'm trying to use this article to learn about custom roleproviders, but I'm getting this error:
Could not load type 'TestRoles.SimpleRoleProvider'.
The relevant section from my web.config:
<roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="SimpleRoleProvider">
<providers>
<add name="SimpleRoleProvider" type="TestRoles.SimpleRoleProvider"/>
</providers>
</roleManager>
The RolesProvider.cs class:
public class TestRoles{
public class SimpleRoleProvider : RoleProvider
{
public override string[] GetRolesForUser(string username)
{
List<string> roles = new List<string>();
roles.Add("Guest");
if (username.Equals("Dave"))
roles.Add("Admin");
return roles.ToArray();
}
}
}
From this error, it seems like it can't find the RoleProvider.
I am obviously missing something here and it is driving me batty. I am trying to implement a custom role provider so that I can add some of my own custom code to it. I have created my CustomRoleProvider class, I have inherited the RoleProvider base class and implemented its members. I have made the required changes to my web.config so that my CustomRoleProvider is used. This is all working great.
All of this is wrapped up in a wrapper class as provided by the MVC Membership Starter Kit that I am using and wish to extend.
Now I want to add my own custom functionality.
When I add a function to my CustomRoleProvider I cannot see it or access it.
How do I add functionality to my CustomRoleProvider so that I can use it?
I have created custom membership and role providers for a SharePoint web application.
If I deploy the DLL for these classes into the GAC, the membership/role provision works just fine. If I deploy these DLLs to the web application's bin folder in IIS, the web app bails with a server error immediately when browsing to the site.
Parser Error Message: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.
If I view source on the error page I get a bit more info:
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I have written an assembly (DLL) containing two classes, MyMembershipProvider and MyRoleProvider, which are derived from MembershipProvider and RoleProvider, respectively. I have implemented most but not all of the abstract methods; the remaining ones all throw a NotImplementedException. I have signed the assembly and added a reference to it in my web-site project, where the relevant web.config sections look like this:
[Code]....
When I fire up the site, however, I get the following error:
Configuration Error
Description:
An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately.
Parser Error Message:
Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.
The error message points to the <add /> tag in the <roleManager /> section: if I take that out, however (enabled="false"), it comes back again as soon as I try to log-in to the site (this time pointing to the membership section). I have verified that is recognising the classes by changing the name in the "type" attribute (to something that doesn't exist), at which point it throws a different error. Therefore I'm presuming there's a problem with my assembly code somewhere; but how can I find out where? I have debug=true in the web.config and also compiled the assembly with Debug options, but no clues.
I had a post here [URL] that I need to expand on now. I have a few web pages that need to check for a certain role on each page request. I have a custom Membership Provider and a custom Role Provider (called CustomRoleProvider - very original - I know) that I am using to do this. When a user logs in, the CustomRoleProvider.GetRolesForUser() method is called automatically (by the urlAuthorizationModule). When this method gets called, I am currently adding a role to the roles string array that allows/permits the user from viewing the web pages of concern based on certain qualifications that are determined elsewhere in the code (i.e. the database is queried to see if the user has rights to visit certain pages).
This approach only gets me half way because the user's roles are only checked once at login. When I wrote my previous post, I thought the CustomRoleProvider was broken because it wasn't calling the IsUserInRole() method on each page request. According to Microsoft, "The IsUserInRole method is called by the IsUserInRole method of the Roles class to determine whether the current logged-on user is associated with a role from the data source for the configured ApplicationName." (that information comes from this page:
[URL] Reading that description I thought it was being called automatically on each page request. This is not correct. What I need to know how to do is to get a method in the CustomRoleProvider that returns a boolean to be called automatically on each page request so I can update the user's roles if they change while the user is logged into the web site. For example, if the user has rights to visit page A and then five minutes later his rights are revoked, he can't visit page A again unless he contacts an admin to reset his rights.
I am desiging a master and details page from a search page..user can search for something and I need to display the result in jqgrid if the result has more than 1 row or record.. if the result is just one record then i have to directly send then to details page by skiping grid page... I do have an action method for results page and one more action method for Jqgrid data..i am trying to check the row count for the database result and trying to redirect to details action results..but its not working at all..and showing an empty jqgrid..
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I have decorated my base controller with a couple of action filters. They work fine.
One of those filters sets up the request - does things like set the culture based on the domain, etc.
I also have a handful of actions that require authorization using the Authorize attribute.
My problem is that when an user attempts to request a page they are not authorized to access, the authorization filter kicks in and redirects them to a page telling them that they cannot vie the page.
The issue is that the action filters never run so the culture and other request data is never set. This effectively causes language to be wrong in the view and other data to be missing.
I know that authorization filters run first but my question is this: How can I design this such that I can ensure that certain methods are always run before the view is returned, regardless of the authorization.
How can I make an AJAX call to retrieve the URL of controller's action method?
View 2 RepliesI've been using the new ASP.Net MVC 3 RemoteAttribute to send a remote call to an action method that had a single parameter. Now I want to pass in a second parameter using the AdditionalFields property:
[Remote("IsEmailAvailable", "Users", AdditionalFields = "InitialEmail")]
Where IntialEmail is a hidden field in the view. The action looks like so:
public JsonResult IsEmailAvailable(string email,string InitialEmail){//etc.}
When the view is rendered, the hidden field is populated, but when the Action method is triggered remotely, the value is an empty string.
I've seen elsewhere case sensitivity may be an issue, so I've ensured the Action method has the same case for both parameters.
I have 2 views for a input operation in my application.
The first view (lets call it view1) submits a form. Based on the form some operations on database is done and second view(View2) is returned with some other data from the database as a model.
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Now, since I return a new view and not a action redirect the url is still http://url/View1 but everything works as it is supposed to.
When I submit the form in View2 it calls the View1 action method, not the View2 action method. Probably because the url is still View1.
public ActionResult RenderMyThing(IList<String> strings)
{
return View("RenderMyView");
}
How do I pass in strings?
routes.MapRoute("MyRoute", "RenderMyThing.aspx", new { controller = "My", action = "RenderMyThing" });
Is there a way I could pass in strings here?
Secondly, how does ASP.NET MVC know that action is my action, and controller is my controller. Like I saw this in samples, and it does work, but isn't it just an anonymous object with no type?
I'm trying to use the jQuery.post() function to post an object to an action method, but for some reason the nested objects aren't initialised properly when they're received by the action method.
Here's my javascript code:
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And my action method:
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company.Id has a value of 10, but company.User.Id is 0. what I'm doing wrong? I've not named any properties incorrectly, by the way.
I have an ActionResult that accepts POST, however is there a work around for me to redirect from a controller to another controller containing this POST method/action?
View 3 RepliesI have a controller called Person and it has a post method called NameSearch.
This method returns RedirectToAction("Index"), or View("SearchResults"), or View("Details"). The url i get for all 3 possibilities are [URL] How would i change this to rewrite the urls to [URL], [URL] for View("SearchResults"), and [URL].
I'm sure something like this worked before for taking a type and pass it to another action method (I cannot / never use TempData)
[Code
have an action method returning a JsonResult in my controller:
public JsonResult GetDetails()
{
var rows = //Linq-To-SQL
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I am creating a custom control by inheriting a server control, say LinkButton. There are properties like "BorderColor" available in LinkButton. Let's say, I don't want this particular property to be available when I create an instance of the custom control.
I want to completely hide this particular property (I don't want to override it but disable it.)
My code is as follows:
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I've been trying to get a custom validator component working that ensures at least one checkbox from a checkboxlist has been checked. I've been used some code I found on dotnetjunkies.com but the client-side validation didn't work. I've been attempting to modify it to get the client-side javascript validation to work with no luck. Basically, I compile the below code into a DLL and add it to my bin folder.
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I have created my own custom role provider class "SGI_RoleProvider" and configured properly.
Everything is working fine.
Suppose that I have added a public method say "SayHello()", then how can i call that. Because if i am using Roles then the method is not displayed. If i am forcefully using that Roles.SayHello() then compiler gives the error.
how can i call this. Because creating a new instance of SGI_RoleProvider is meaningless.
how to call a ASP.NET MVC controller action from a javascript function in related view.
Particularly I am trying do do this from a recursive timer function like this:
script type="text/javascript">
function ShowTime() {
var dt = new Date();
document.getElementById("<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>").value = dt.toLocaleTimeString();
---> // the controller action call: "/Controller/ShowImage"
window.setTimeout("ShowTime()", 1000);
}
</script>
<asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox>
<script type="text/javascript">
// a startup script to put everything in motion
window.setTimeout("ShowTime()", 1000);
</script>
The action result is an image (JPEG serialized array) for display.
i just want to be able to call a javascritp subroutine on the client, after the server has done its thing (when an action completes or control goes to the view, i'd dont mind calling the js from the view either).
for some reason, even vs2010 doesn't let me put breakpoints in <% ... %> tagged areas between <script...> and </script> tagged areas. i for this reason can't figure out whats going on and how it's running things. here is what i've put in my view, and the javascritp should run, but it doesn't....
im just trying to call "RunOnceRoutines;" but it's not getting called!
the 2 questions: how on earth do we call javascript methods from server, and where is all this lovely javascript debugging i've heard about since vs2008? no where to be found!
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