How do I allow nullable string to my declaration?
I get this error "Type 'String' must be a value type or a type argument constrained to 'Structure' in order to be used with 'Nullable' or nullable modifier '?'." [:(]
Function Index(ByVal product As Product, ByVal category_1 As Nullable(Of String), ByVal category_2 As
Nullable(Of String)) As ActionResult
...
End Function
I've written the following Extension Method
<Extension()>
Public Function ToUtcIso8601(ByVal dt As Date) As String
Return String.Format("{0:s}Z", dt)
End Function
But I also need a Nullable version of the same method... how exactly do I do this?
This is what I was thinking, but I'm not sure if this is the right way
[code]....
What am I missing here?I get the error Declaration Expected @ myPostData=
[Code]....
Dim encoding As New ASCIIEncoding()
Dim RateXML
As
String =
"123"
'Format the Data
Dim myPostData
As
Byte()
myPostData = encoding.GetBytes(RateXML)
^^^^^^^
If I have something like:
lbl1.Text = "lbl7.Text = "Blah blah text <A href="long URL">here</a>.""
Then it comes up with an error. I tried escaping the quotes but still doesn't work so what do I do?
What is a Generic Class Declaration? and when should it be used?
View 2 RepliesI am working on a existing web application which I load from a folder. I mean application semms it is not created as website application from visual studio.
The controls defined in aspx are not having member declarations in .aspx.cs file and no designer.cs files were created. I mean nowhere controls are defined, but simply the controls defined in aspx are accessble in corresponding aspx.cs file wich same id of the control tag. those are being reconized even in intelligense.
How is it possible? is there any special configuration needed to make aspx controls declared automatically for aspx.cs file use.
I have added one div in aspx page and i want to take the Id of that div in code behind file by using webcontrol.
View 1 RepliesI get a message - "Function without an 'As' clause" for HMAC_MD5 and "Variable declaration without an 'As' clause" for Key and Value. But the code works. But the messages still exists. Is there a way to fix this to avoid the messages?
[Code]....
I have an XSLT transform I am using to process an XML file, inserting it into the body of my aspx page.Reference the following for background information:
background on xml/xslt
I have the following in my xml file:
<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>
<xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"
xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" [code].....
In the following page what is Container? There was no declaration of Container in anywhere in the page. How and why is it used?
[code]...
I know that this topic has already discussed a lot. But, what I face today is some more strange;
My environment is, Win 7, Visual Studio 2008, ie8
I created a sample aspx and added a gridview, could make it work nicely using below style;
thead tr
{
position: relative;
top: expression(this.offsetParent.scrollTop);
}
only when I comment out automatically generated DOCTYPE declaration;How can I make this webform work correctly with DOCTYPE declaration is on?
If a server control was declared like this
<my:customControl id="cc1" runat="server">
</my:customControl>
is it possible to access the text between the tags?
I have info from a couple of different tables that I need to be able to double click on a cell in a gridview and navigate to a couple of separate .aspx pages. Yesterday I learned how to use RowDataBound to get the name from a cell on a gridview to use in a delete confirmation dialoge box, and so am pretty sure I should be using this same RowDataBound, but I cant quite figure out where to start.
For example from the gridview below, I need to be able to double click in the "LoginIssue" field and navigate to an "EditLogin.aspx" page and subsequently be able to double click in the "ContractPath" and be able to navigate to a "ContractPath.aspx" page...or popup.
[Code]....
I have a user control in which I have declared a connection string as a private class variable.
I have a bunch of cascading dropdown lists in this control.
In one of my subroutines PopulateDdlPostalCodes I get an error "Connection was not initialized".
In all the other subs that use Conn, the class variable is being recognized.
If I duplicate the declaration of Conn in this sub then all works ok.
Why is this sub different than all the others?
[Code]....
I have two repeaters bound to object collections. They both work fine. But when I move repeater B to repeater A's FooterTemplate the serverside declaration of repeater B disappear.This is not a parent/child relation.
Update:<asp:Repeater ID="myOuterRepeater" runat="server">
<ItemTemplate>
...
[code]...
I have the following custom model binder attribute:
[Code]....
However, when I use it as follows:
[Code]....
I get the following error:
Attribute 'MyApp.DateTime' is not valid on this declaration type. It is only valid on 'class, struct, enum, interface, param' declarations.
What am I missing?
Consider this code:
Partial Public Class MyAspNETClass
Inherits System.Web.UI.Page
Protected Shared MyVariable As String
Is Myvariable a variable used local for each instance of the page ? Or that variable is "shared" for all users accessing my page? Is MyVariable saved in server memory, or is it saved on the viewstate of aspx page?
I have a ASP.NET MVC view that displays a single ServiceProvider object. In this view there is a selectlist that lists one or more ServiceProviderGroup objects and uses the Id property for the value and the Name property for the text. In this list I also show a entry with a value of -1 and text of "No Provider". When the Edit[Post] method is called the Id value from the select list maps to a nullable property (GroupId) on a ServiceProvider object. When a value other the -1 is selected from the list it works as expected. But, when the value is -1, I want a NULL reference to be applied to the GroupId property during the UpdateModel call. Within the Edit method, prior to calling UpdateModel, I have tried replacing the entry within the Controller.ValueProvider with a null reference and adding a ValueProviderResult which contains a null reference, but the UpdateModel always has an issue (InvalidOperationException).
View 3 RepliesI have a property int? MyProperty as a member in my datasource (ObjectDataSource). Can I bind this to a TextBox, like
<asp:TextBox ID="MyTextBox" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyProperty") %>' />
Basically I want to get a null value displayed as blank "" in the TextBox, and a number as a number. If the TextBox is blank MyProperty shall be set to null. If the TextBox has a number in it, MyProperty should be set to this number.If I try it I get an exception: "Blank is not a valid Int32".
But how can I do that? How to work with nullable properties and Bind?
I have a problem with passing a model to a controllerIn my controller I have a HttpPost function that gets a EF model.The problem is that the form does not contains all properties of the EF model.When the function is called that gets this EF model, I get error messge of fields that are not nullable in the EF model.That's because the fields are not in the form, so the not nullable properties gets no value.
View 5 RepliesI am a c#/asp.net developer and I am having to work on a VB/asp.net. I started out with VB.NET but after years away from it I'm getting confused with the syntax.
I have two variables
Dim originalDate as DateTime?
Dim newDate as DateTime?
Both nullable datetimes, originalDate is a nullable date I am getting from the database and newDate time is set in code, I need to compare them, they can either both have dates, neither have dates or one have and one not.
I have a bit of code as follows:
if origEndDate = origEndDate then
When both origEndDate and origEndDate are "nothing" this statement is false (well when I run it in the watch window it comes back as nothing)!
I don't understand why this is the case because I was under the impression doing an "=" compares the two values and as they are the same surely it should be true?
What syntax should I be using as in C# I can do the above as so:
if (origEndDate == origEndDate) { }
and it will come back as true.
I have a small Linq to Sql database application, with a table set up with a datetime field (allow Null). I am able to submit 'Nothing' into the datetime field after setting my .dbml table | field | property to AutoGenerated = True. Why this is I don't know, but it works. Now that I can submit an empty datetime field to the database, I am having trouble loading it into an object with a property set as datetime.
Example: of property in object
Private _deliveryDate As DateTime = Nothing
Public Property DeliveryDate() As DateTime [code]...
Example: setting value when instanciating the obect
dim test as new dateObject(Nothing, ...) ' where (Nothing) represents the datetime field retrieved from the database set to null.When I try the above line I get "Nullable object must have a value."
This is actually a situation where LINQ as follow:
Code:
Dim query = From loadedfile In dtloadedfile.AsEnumerable() _
Join householdPanels In dtHouseholdPanels.AsEnumerable() _
On CType(loadedfile("Household_number"), Integer) Equals _
[code]...
when i get to col.DataType = t.PropertyType, i hit an error where it says Nullable datatype is not allowed. I know the t.propertytype returns nullable as datatype, however, this nullable type do have a normal datatype declared too. ie Of System.Nullable(Of Integer) from the LINQ query. But how do i get that information?
ps: this function is taken somewhere from the web, so you might recognise it.
I remember being told that you can add some syntax to the end of a statement that will do something if the field is null. Pretty vague, but I cant seem to find anything about it via google.
I definitely isnt how to set a field to be nullable. I know that.
Here is an example of what I want.
int? field1 = 0;
field1 = int.parse(string2); (where string2 is a passed value, that could be null)
I thought there was something you could put at ?? if it is a null, such as:
field1 = int.parse(string2) ??;
Or do I have to check every if every string2 is null before making that statement.
Can anyone reliably get the EDS to save a nullable column to the databse as a "null" when bound to any of the controls such as "FormView"?I have tried using several different UpdateParameters (Session, ControlParamater, Parameter, etc). I have tried setting "ConvertEmptyStringToNull" to true and leaving the property off entirely. Nothing works. On my "Inserts" it works fine.(I have made sure the column is set to nullable = true in the Entity Designer.....)
View 7 Replies