C# - Does The Assignment Of _custName Need To Make Any Request To The Database
Jan 28, 2010
I want to make my queries better but have been un-able to find a resource out there which lays out when a query is shipped of to the db.
DBContext db = new DBContext();
Order _order = (from o in db
where o.OrderID == "qwerty-asdf-xcvb"
select o).FirstOrDefault();
String _custName = _order.Customer.Name +" "+_order.Customer.Surname;
Does the assignment of _custName need to make any request to the database?
I'm using asp.net list control that creates a table with <div> elements that have a picture thumbnail, and when the user clicks on the div and it calls Ajax method and populates a shared dialog with correct information, and then shows it to the user. In order to do this the div needs to know the item id associated with it, so it can do the db lookup.
how do you dynamically store data to a div item in a list view loop.
so something like
<listControl> <ItemTemplate> < div> stuff thisdiv.data(<% Eval(id) %>); // <-unsure about this part </div> </ItemTemplate> </listControl>
I have got a composite control and i would like to dictate which attribute/property is assigned to the control first from the markup?example in the aspx file:
when the control gets created from the mark-up above, ViewType will be assigned first, Which is what I do not want, I would like RealBase to be assigned first under all circumstances. This control is to be users by other developers so I cannot just switch the order.
The datasource (XML) may or may not have an optional attribute called IsPremium. If it exists, then I have to add custom business logic that determines what the treeNodeBinding.ToolTipField is going to be. The custom business logic will generate a string which needs to be set as the value of the ToolTipField.
This is so frustrating to me. I'm doing this via standard .NET 2.0+ web services (not WCF). My application is in .NET 3.5 but I'm just adding a service reference. I've not done any SOAP WSDL sending before. I've used NVP which to me seems much more error prone and burdensome because you have to create all the wrappers yourself and if any of that third party API changes, it breaks your code. I have not a clue how to make a call using the latest PayPal WSDL. I added the service reference and I see proxy classes such as [className]Request and [className]Response but how do you actually make the CALL and send the request over the wire?
I see people have used the outdated (.NET 1.1) PayPal SDK. We do not want to use an SDK just to send a request. Isn't it much easier nowdays in .NET when using any SOAP API to invoke the request? People for example using PayPal are relying on a caller class from that SDK but again it's way, way outdated. So onto today, .NET 2.0+, I thought that you don't need all that plumbing anymore?
How would I do this? I see no good documentation on the net period on .NET 2.0 or 3.5 web services especially SOAP and it's frustrating. Sure add the service reference, use the WSDL and proxy generated class wrappers but outside this HOW to make a request is impossible to find. I'm seeing legacy ways of doing this in .NET and then I hear this is all done under the covers for you in .NET..I guess that must be .NET 2.0+ ?? Is it as simple as just making the proxy class method calls and .NET under the covers takes care of the plumbing to actually send the request over Http unlike .NET 1.1 where you had to do all the plumbing yourself?
I have a page that contains a user control. Can i make an ajax request directly to the control? I know I can make an ajax request to .aspx or .ashx; however, is it possible to go direct to the .ascx?
I have an ASP.NET app that gets its data form an external service, via HttpWebRequest. Currently the request is made on the Page_Load event. After that event finishes I have my objects in the page and I output their data in the HTML. Sometimes the site hangs and throws timeout exceptions. Should I move the web request to an event prior to Page_Load ?
I have several ASP.NET sites, hosted on the same domain (different subdomains) and working via HTTPS.I have WCF service, hosted on the same domain.I have a separate state server for sessions. why - i will reply later, but it's a 'must') On my sites, I use grid components from Telerik (but actually it does not matter) that ask for data from WCF service and must be filled with this data.I cannot manage to make POST request to WCF service from javascript: for some reason it's always either GET or OPTIONS (no matter if I use Sys.Net.WebServiceProxy invoke or just a plain jquery AJAX request). It happens even if I indicate COOKIE mode
I have integrated Third party advertise module in my website. their domain s "http://rotator.adjuggler.com/".they read cookie from this domain and display advertise based on cookies value. now I want to set cookies on this domain from my website.though this is not possible. they have provided url to set cookies.http://rotator.adjuggler.com/servlet/cookie?action=set&name=test&value=1&maxage=2592000we can set cookies on their doemain by calling above ur.Problem:1) we can't make xmlHttp request because this is cross-doamin link.2) we can't use jquery because it uses xmlHttp as native implementation.3) i have tried to set above url in <img src="..." > and <script src="...">. both not working.but when i paste above url in address bar it works.can anybody have idea how to call above url from Code.
I want to provide status updates during a long-running task on an ASP.NET WebForms page with AJAX.Is there a way to get the ScriptManager to execute and process a script for a web service request concurrently with an async postback? I have a script on the page that makes a web service request. It runs on page load and periodically using setInterval(). It's running correctly before the async postback is initiated, but it stops running during the async postback, and doesn't run again until after the async postback completes.
i'm just getting started with asp.net and ajax. My question is : is it possible to make an ajax request and simulate the server response in the code behind. in other words can the request be sent to the code behind of the same page? if it's possible haw can i perform this ?
I have an ASP.NET project (VS2008 on Windows 7 with either webforms, MVC1, or MVC2 -- all the same result for me) which is just the File->New hello world web project. It's using the default ASP.NET development server, and when I start the server with F5, the browser never connects and I get a timeout. I tried to debug this by telnetting to the development server's port while it was running, and I got the same result:
C:Usersfarmercs>telnet localhost 54752 Connecting To localhost...Could not open connection to the host, on port 54752: Connect failed I can see in the system tray that the server thinks it's running, and a netstat -a -n command shows that there is indeed an active TCP listener on that port.
This worked in the not-too-distant past, and I could work on web projects using the development server. One thing that has changed since then was that I installed the Microsoft Loopback Adapter to accommodate a local development Oracle installation. I'm not sure this is the problem, but it seems a likely culprit.
I also tried to hit the port using the server name itself (http://mycomputername:54752) but with the same result. So, what could be blocking me from connecting? And if it's the loopback, then what is a good way for me to retain my ability to connect to my development Oracle server while still being able to use the ASP.NET development server?
For example, I have three UpdatePanels on the page. I click a button, and I get pretty long response, that contains all the data for the three UpdatePanels, the viewstate string.
I want to optimize my query and receive response like "ok" or "not ok". How can I do that?
i create a composite control as can be seen in code below, and add this control to webform, assign FormView1 to the HeaderControlName property, Run the page, the system will generate parse error message : Cannot create an object of type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView' from its string representation 'FormView1' for the 'HeaderControlName' property. However, if i don't assign FormView1 in design screen and manually (through coding) assign FormView1 to the custom control on init, it works as expected.
custom control public class CmdTest : CompositeControl { public virtual FormView HeaderControlName { get { object oObject = ViewState["HeaderControlName"]; return (oObject == null) ? null : (FormView)oObject; } set { ViewState["HeaderControlName"] = value; } } protected override void CreateChildControls( { Controls.Clear(); Button xx = new Button(); Controls.Add(xx); } } webpage.aspx (assign FormView1 in design time, it will generate error) <Utils:CmdTest ID="CmdTest1" runat="server" HeaderControlName="FormView1" /> webpage.aspx (didn't assign FormView1 in ASPX, but assign it on Init Code, it works) <Utils:CmdTest ID="CmdTest1" runat="server" oninit="CmdTest1_Init" /> Webpage.aspx.cs protected void BsCmdTest1_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { CmdTest1.HeaderControlName = FormView1; }
A class in my ASP.NET website needs to access a database table multiple times for every request. The database table should rarely change, if ever. Maybe a couple times a month.
In the static constructor of the class, the table is fetched from the DB and cached in a static local variable. Whenever the class needs to access the table, then, it just uses the cached, static version.
My question concerns the lifespan of this cached, static version of the table.
I understand that it's fetched the first time the class is instantiated or a static method in the class is used. But how often does this occur on the web server? What if the table changes and we want to reset this static version of the table?
Basically, I'm wondering, is this table fetched once and then only refetched each time I restart IIS? What, with regard to the site and IIS, will trigger this static class to reset, causing the static table to be refetched?
i m trying to something new for myself...actually before some day i post a thread that how to fire item command event of Runtime genrated datalist, in this datalist i creating item template and hadder template at runtime, and in this item template i m creating a button at run time.No problem was that i cant handle the item command event of datalist through that button, but no luck, no one show thir interest and i couldnt find any thing regarding this.so i decided to do the work with client side ajax scripting, i found a liitle bit success, now i can delete the particular record from the database. but now problem is that i cant rebinding the datalist again, with new updated dataset.
I have this code, that i use to get data from a database.
Code: Using connection As OleDbConnection = New OleDbConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnStr").ConnectionString) Using command As OleDbCommand = New OleDbCommand("select * from TableTest", connection) command.Connection.Open() Using reader As OleDbDataReader = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.CloseConnection) While reader.Read()
[Code]..
how can i add 2 sql statsment to that code !?
First of all i need to know is an record is in the db. and if its in the db i need to know if status is activ or notactiv
"select * from TableTest where email = 'test@tester.dk'" if this is OK, then i need to know if Status is "activ" or "notactiv"
how do i do that and how do i response.write one thing if email is not in the db, and another thing if the email is in the db and the status is activ and a 3. response.write if its in the db and the status is notactiv.
BTW do i need to add a reader.close() between the end.while and end.using !?
