The Best Way Of Invoking Reports From MVC View ?
Dec 6, 2010I have written some reports in SSRS which can deployed to the reports server. What is the best way of invoking these reports from an MVC View ?
View 3 RepliesI have written some reports in SSRS which can deployed to the reports server. What is the best way of invoking these reports from an MVC View ?
View 3 RepliesI am new to a company and to administering some crystal reports. Looking at a report in design view how can I view the datasource of the report? I have the field explorer open and I can see the name of the datasource and I know which sql server it is from. It isnt a table in the database and if it is a view it is under and alias. I think it might be a query in the dataset in the datasource but im not sure how to view it or find out the details.
View 1 RepliesI have a report where I need to select parameter values from dropdowns. Reports works fine when I run it on reportserver manager or when I do RUN.
The problem is when I try opening it in the MVC views to select parameters from a dropdown, its subsequent dropdown is not able to show its values
for example:
I am able to select first DD Country as it does not have any thing to select earlier.
The State DD is not rendering its relavent states from selected country. (it works in report manager and when I run it without debugging)
Question: how do code to make the dropdowns working.
Crystal report view tool bar is not showing correctly. Instead of toolbar there is text "Submit Query"
View 2 RepliesI am developing this website which requires multiple groups of roles inside membership. Here is an example:
I want to create a group of states (would be the first group of roles):
* Oregon
* California
* Kansas
* Texas
* Ohio
Then I want to use the membership provider to filter the query results. Example:
* Patrick is an website admin and he can view all states from the query results
* Laura is from Kansas, so she can view only Kansas results from the query (reports, submission form only to Kansas, and so on..
I have no problems viewing data on local machine but for some reason I cannot view that same report on the web. When i view source of the web page I can see data inside the javascript but the page is blank. What could I be doing wrong?
View 2 RepliesHow to invoking java web service(WSDL) with c# client (web application).Java web service methods is proxy.object will be created in client C#.Then how to call that proxy method in c# client? how to test that java web service in c# client side?
View 1 RepliesI have to call the function, when exception occured. Is it possible to call the function in Catch block (Try-Catch)? I have tried it but the function did not get invoked. What i have to do for it? Shall we unable to call the functions in Catch block? I have shown my code below.
Try
Catch ex As Exception
ErrorHandlers.LogErrorDetails(ex, Session("UserId").ToString, "")
Throw ex
End Try.
I knew, We can invoke this function in Finally block but i do not need as per my requirements.
I'm working on a web page that will be viewed on a blackberry (to start with). On the page I need to be able to add calendar events to the user's blackberry calendar or add new contact records to their contact list.
I've found the api on RIM's site that would allow this [URL] but I have no how to incorporate it into an asp.net page.
I assume I need to write inline javascript but I don't know how to import/include the API libraries that are required. Does anyone know how to do this or, better yet, have some sample code? If this is even possible, I think I just need to get past this hurdle and I'll be on my way (until I trip over the next one ).
In an ASP.Net application I am creating a Compiled Assembly Instance during Application Start. Then I want to invoke the methods as a user interacts with the controls on the Web Page. Currently I can invoke a method when i create the assembly during start up. however after wards the assembly is lost.
I am currently storing it at the Application Level as an object. I do the same thing in a windows app this all works fine. In ASP.Net it does not.
Where can i store the assembly object
Snippets Below
[Code]....
I have a web forms page with a button that involkes a __doPostBack callback to the page. I would like to invoke this manually - by "manually" I mean from outside the webpage, for example by using wget.
View 5 RepliesI have a web forms page with a button that involkes a __doPostBack callback to the page. I would like to invoke this manually - by "manually" I mean from outside the webpage, for example by using wget.
View 3 RepliesI have what should be a relatively simple task that's frankly got me stumped. I've researched it until my brain is fried, and now I'm puntingHere's the scenario:I have an ASPX page (Q2.aspx) that is decorated with the WebService,WebServiceBinding, and ScriptService attributes. That page contains a method, GetAllContacts, that is decorated with the WebMethodattribute and returns a string containing JSON data. (For what it's worth, the pageitself contains no other controls or functionality.)I have an HTML page that contains JavaScript which uses the XmlHttpRequestobject to invoke the GetAllContacts WebMethod on the ASPX page and transformthe JSON data into an HTML table. I have verified that my Web.Config file contains the appropriate protocol handlersfor HttpGet and HttpPut in the WebServices section under System.Web.webServices.
I have verified that my Web.Config file contains the ScriptModule entry under theSystem.webServer.modules section, and that it matches the appropriate documentation.
However, when I view the HTML page in a browser, the following occur:The web request goes through, but the results are for the unprocessed HTML from the ASPX page.The GetAllContacts method is never invoked, as evidenced by setting a breakpoint in its code.The code to invoke the Web service, however, is invoked, and the JavaScript callbackfunction that is invoked upon request completion is properly invoked.
It appears that the JavaScript code is largely set up correctly, but for some reason that is completely escaping me at this point, the HTML page will simply not execute the WebMethod on the ASPX page, and simply returns the page as though it were a plain HTML GET request. Clearly, an HTML document can't be evaluated by JavaScript's eval function, which brings me to my problem. (Also note that the JSON data appears nowhere in the HTML that's returned.)I am, frankly, baffled. I've looked at dozens of Microsoft articles, StackOverflow posts, CodeProject articles, and who knows what else. My code looks like it's okay. But I know better. I'm missing something simple, stupid, and obvious. I just need someone to point it out to me.Below you'll find the ASPX page code and the HTML code, in the hope that they'll shed some light.ASPX Code
<%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Q2.aspx.cs" Inherits="Satuit.Q2" enablesessionstate="False" %>
<html>
<body>
[code]...
I am having a content page in master page and an iframe in content page.
In content page i have dynamically created treeview and in iframe i am having a gridview. As i add or delete a row in iframe my treeview should automatically reloaded that value without entire page referesh.
Here point to notice is my iframe is a different aspx .
I have the following setup, where I am custom validating a textbox. It works fine as long as I am manually typing in the textbox and changing the text and focusing out of the textbox.
[Code]....
when I try to invoke validation change event from javascript (using JQuery 1.4.2)
function copyCity() {
$('#<%= tbpCity.ClientID%>').value = "Some City";
$('#<%= tbpCity.ClientID%>').trigger("change");
}
the custom validation is not being invoked.
How can I inovke customvalidator to do validation?
note: I have verified this works on FireFox but not on IE. how to fire change event in IE.
I have an MVC 1.0 app that makes several AJAX calls from JS files. Originally I was just specifying the relative URL like so:
[Code]....
This works but it feels rather like a hack. Is there any way to do what Url.Action does but in the JS code itself? I've had a bit of a search but I'm having trouble coming up with the correct keywords, or else the info just isn't out there.
We have a base class that all our webpages in our application inherit from. I have a static method in the base class which when called will clear values from the application cache. Now the issue is this method needs to be triggered from a source outside the current application. I there any way this can be accomplished without creating an aspx page that will call this base method on page load.
View 1 RepliesI have a set of custom ASP.NET server controls, most of which derive from CompositeControl. I want to implement a uniform look for "required" fields across all control types by wrapping each control in a specific piece of HTML/CSS markup. For example:
<div class="requiredInputContainer">
...custom control markup...
</div>
I'd love to abstract this behavior in such a way as to avoid having to do something ugly like this in every custom control, present and future:
public class MyServerControl : TextBox, IRequirableField {
public IRequirableField.IsRequired {get;set;}
protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer){
RequiredFieldHelper.RenderBeginTag(this, writer)
//render custom control markup
RequiredFieldHelper.RenderEndTag(this, writer).....
If I was deriving all of my custom controls from the same base class, I could conceivably use Template Method to enforce the before/after behavior;but I have several base classes and I'd rather not end up with really a convoluted class hierarchy anyway.
It feels like I should be able to design something more elegant (i.e. adheres to DRY and OCP) by leveraging the functional aspects of C#, but I'm drawing a blank.
I have an ASP.NET application and need to use some COM components inside it.
I need a wrapper class over Func or Action which creates a new STA thread and run the delegate with that thread or something like this. Do you know such a class or library out of the box or a sample code ?
CodeUsingComComponent.InvokeSTA()
I'd like to invoke a button click event on an ASP.net page programmatically, using c#. I don't have access to the server-side of the page, so i can't invoke the function directly.
View 3 RepliesIs it possible to invoke an action on asp.net mvc controller programmatically from a classic webforms page that is not handled by MVC but running in the same web application?
We have a mixed asp.net web application: webforms for page rendering and mvc for ajax calls. But we want to render some MVC views from webform page on the server via the code (not a web request)...
Currently we are doing a web request locally to get the rendered view: is it the right/only way?
When I am trying to invoke a method using a proxy class i get error
"System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server was unable to process request. ---> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at ..."
I was wondering if it is possible to call a webservice or send a SOAP request using a provided certificate to encrypt my password (my identity) and use another to encrypt/sign a timestamp, service header, & soap body? Does anyone have any material or sample code where I can test encryption and security too? It doesn't have to be my own certificates, I just want to see it work and then I can possibly tailor it to my needs. After the SOAP request, there will be a provided response which I assume I will have to decrypt.
I found this thread, but it doesn't seem to use signatures or an SSL connection. Does VS 2010 have some extra features to help out on this? I believe the SOAP should look like this.
<soap:Envelope>
<soap:Header>
<svchdr:ServiceHeader>
<svchdr:StaticRegion>...</svchdr:StaticRegion>
<svchdr:DynamicRegion>...</svchdr:DynamicRegion>
</svchdr:ServiceHeader>
<wsse:Security>
(Signature Info)
</wsse:Security>
<soap:Body>
...
</soap:Body>
</soap:Envelope>
Here's my problem: I have an asp.net app that invokes a java/axis based webservice through a wsdl file provided by my customer. But, as i had no access to this webservice at the dev time, i've created a fake .net based webservice, with the same methods, returning some valid data, so i'd be able to test the integration interface. The problem is, when i add the service reference on my app, pointing to my fake webservice (.net), it's class has a certain name, and when i point it to my customer's wsdl file, it's class has a different name. Generated class name when i add the service reference by:
- .NET fake webservice = "TransferenciaEndpointSoapClient"
- wsdl file of the java/axis webservice = "TransferenciaEndpointClient"
I want the class i've created in my fake webservice to keep the same name of the wsdl, when i add the service reference on my app. I tried to add a "web reference" instead of a "service reference", but it did not work. I also tried to change the name of the class on the "Reference.cs" file, it works on my environment, but it doesn't when i put the generated bin on my customer's environment. I'd like to solve this without having to create a java/axis based fake webservice.
Tools: MS Visual Studio 2008
Language: ASP.NET VB (Visual Basic)
.NET Framework: 3.5
Host: Winhost.com basic hosting
I have a class that is normally compiled into a .dll prior to distribution and used as a component library.
IE: vbc /t:library /out:xyz.dll xyz.vb
(User would download then put the .dll in the bin directory and use
Imports xyz
Dim obj As New xyz
ojb.Foo)
There is a need to write a line of content to the class file specific to the user prior to compile.
Is this possible via server side?
I believe my short question would be, can I call vbc.exe from a site hosted with winhost.com and compile a class.vb file through vbc.exe on the server? And how?
I have been able to reach IE via ASP.NET from my account there so I think it may be possible.