I need little clarification regarding the Application Domain. As it has been said in the .net framework documentation "a process can have one or more application domain", Does it means There can be only one process in a machine dedicated for the .net application and whenever a new .net application gets executed, an application domain gets created in the above mentioned process?
My feeling says it's not posible but anyway I am curious if there is at least a workaround for accomplish this.Basically I am working at my client site and my machine is not connected to the domain.What I want to do is running a web application locally under a domain account, and using the webdev server.The webapp uses the default authentication, windows authentication that is.I tried using impersonation with domainuser & password but I got the following error Could not create Windows user token from the credentials specified in the config file. Error from the operating system 'Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password.I have to mention that the username and the password are correct.
I have two domain servers X and Y.My Asp.net Web application is hosted on Domain X.But my scope is required to authorize the user of Domain Y on the Web application hosted on Domain X server.I am using Windows Authetication mode in application
I have developed web application using asp.net 3.5 ,c# 3.0 and visual studio 2008,sql server 2005. i have created .msi file to deploy application on server.. now for testing purpose running in lan for that i want give url name eg.now i'm accessing from LAN like this
I'm going to publish an asp.net pre-compiled web site on shared hosting account but I don't want my code to be copied and able to run on another domain. I need to check domain and if not example.com or www.example.com redirect to error page or show error as response.
EDIT: Here is my solution based on given answers
void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string[] safeDomains = new string[] { "localhost", "example.com", "www.example.com" }; if (!((IList)safeDomains).Contains(Request.ServerVariables["SERVER_NAME"])) { Response.Write("Domain not allowed!"); Response.End(); } }
I have two web applications in ASP.NET which are quite the same (same business logic, same DAL, same DB scheme but different instance).
The only thing that I need to change is the design (logo, color,...) and the text (global and local resource) to adress two separate business sector. We cannot "subdomain" the application because we need the two app "seems to be" independant.
Is it a good idea to run only one instance for the 2 web applications.
For example :
I will have 2 hostnames : mycompagny.com and mycompagny2.com and I will put an HTTP Module which will set a string which will be propagated in my application like 'company' and 'company2'. I will instanciate the dal only once but the connection string will change depending on the string 'company' or 'company2'.
Just for information it is a Multi-Business and Multi-Tenant application because both application will have custom theme for some parts of the application.
For example :
mycompagny.com/Busineess1, mycompagny.com/Busineess2, mycompagny.com/Busineess3,.. and mycompagny2.com/Busineess2, mycompagny2.com/Busineess2, mycompagny2.com/Busineess3,...
Can someone explain me what is is the relationship between App Domain and thread? msdn says "threads are free to cross application domain boundaries; a new thread is not created for each application domain." suppose there is one thread t inside Appdomain a1 .there is an another App domain a2 .thread t can cross to a2 from a1 means it can access a2 memory area If thread can cross the app domain boundaries share the memory space then how application domain isolation is still there?
I have a simple question but I still a bit confused after googling. The situation is like this. I have ASP.NET deployed in a Web Server, and had set to a Web Garden and IIS Worker Process is more than 1. So I would like to ask, is it all worker processes running under same Application Domain? Or can said Web Garden running under same Application Domain?
We have an application gathering counter statistics and we would like the values to reset after executing the iisreset command and that's all.
Microsoft says Application_Start is:
Called when the first resource (such as a page) in an ASP.NET application is requested. The Application_Start method is called only one time during the life cycle of an application. You can use this method to perform startup tasks such as loading data into the cache and initializing static values.
However, these are resetting at unexpected intervals. What determines when the application domain's life-cycle ends and this method is called on the next request?
I'm building CAB for ActiveX contol and I need the following clarification:I've control.ocx which have 2.0.0.1 version. When I'm embedding my control I'm putting the following tag:Tommorow, I'm adding new functionality to my ocx and versing it as 3.0.0.1How my tag should look like? Should it content codebase="control.cab#Version=3,0,0,1" attribute? Is it correct?Can I set version for cab file?How can I tell my client to update my ActiveX component?
if i set, CommandArgument="<%#((GridViewRow)Container).RowIndex %>" to linkbutton(inside gridview's template field) will it return (i) GridViewRow of current Row or (ii)DataKey valueof current row?
I want to load data to my application domain using a thread so it will be executed at all times. How can I achieve this? I want the thread will start when iis starts and terminate when iis exits.
Note:
I want to do this so I can use disconnected architecture in my asp.net application.
There are two web applications App1 & App2. A user would submit his information on App1 though a form. On click of a specific button/link on App1, the same data should be posted to a page on App2 and the user should also be redirected to the same page on App2.I would like some help in finding out the best way to implement this functionality.
One of the approaches that I have already tried out is by creating a temporary HTML form at runtime, setting the action attribute of the form to the App2 Page and get the form posted by using javascript submit. The data can then be fetched on App2 page by using the response.form object.This approach works well, but i was still wondering if there is any other way to implement the required functionality.
give some insights on using RESTful webservices to implement this, or else, using some HttpModule to intercept requests at App1 and modify redirect response to app2 or any other approach that you might find fit for the purpose.
I have deployed the asp.net mvc application on the godaddy server under my domain. it is deployed successfully, but i am getting this error :
Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040)
As I checked on google i got solution here, i have applied same. also checked in web.config. it is looked like this If observed properly there is no declaration of mvc dll of version 1.0.0.0 it is of 2.0.0.0 . then why this error comes. I have given reference even of version 2.0.0.0. , applications bin folder have all the required dll's as mentioned in linked blog. then why should this error comes?
What is the difference between IIS Worker process, Application pool and application domain? Do we have more than one application domains in one application pool?Does one application domain means one virtual directory? If we have 2 virtual directories pointing to same physical folder. Will they share the same memory or different when there instances are opened in the browser? Will they be in 2 different application domains?
I was under the impression till now that Global.asax is used for application level events and it's a common file for all users. Then what does Session_Start event does in this file. If we have to create user session varaibles then Is this the write place to create those? If someone can kindly clear my confusion on this file and it's methods.
I've been looking on the Internet for a fairly clear explanation of the different methods of registering javascript in an asp.net application. I think I have a basic understating of the difference between registerStartupScript and registerClientScriptBlock (the main difference being where in the form the script is inserted).I'm not sure I understand what the RegisterClientScriptInclude method does or when it is used. From what I can gather, it is used to register an external .js file. Does this then make any and all javascript functions in that file available to the aspx page it was registered on? For example, if it was registered in the onLoad event of a master page, would all pages using that master page be able to use the javascript functions in the .js file? What problems would arise when trying to use document.getElementById in this case, if any? Also, when it is necessary/advantageous to use multiple .js files and register them separately?
It took me a while to realize the following, which was generated by VS after dragging and dropping the script file to a view file, does not work
[Code]....
However, the former works perfectly for another view file. I am wondering if any expert could shed some light on this.My current hunch is the correct path without using helper Url.Content() depends on a page's URl not where the view file is located.
If I have 2 or 3 different domain names which all point to my same application; is there a way that I can differentiate which of the domain name was used to reach my application? for example if I have both [URL] and [URL] that both reach the same application and I would like to be able to tell which one of those 2 is being used, in code behind?
So far, I forget, that BeginRequest started only when file physically exist. how I can make such redirect in asp.net without creating hundreds of old pages?
How can I access the cache of one web application/domain from another web application/domain?Here is my scenario. I need to verify/check the existence of a certain object in one web application/domain's cache from another web application/domain.
actually i got confused in session object,view state,application domain, can u tell me where i have to use these object. can u define some sort of condition in which session object must used & view state must used & diffrence of thses object where we can only use session & where i we can only use view state
i would like to be able to do is to, lets say i have 10 users running a web application , how can i get the names of all these users. There names , logon times and any other info availabel.
i would like to get this data into a dataset and just bind to a gridview .