If I have 2 or 3 different domain names which all point to my same application; is there a way that I can differentiate which of the domain name was used to reach my application? for example if I have both [URL] and [URL] that both reach the same application and I would like to be able to tell which one of those 2 is being used, in code behind?
View 1 Replieshow to differentiate whether a managed library is running in the context of asp.net application or in a executable?
View 2 RepliesMy feeling says it's not posible but anyway I am curious if there is at least a workaround for accomplish this.Basically I am working at my client site and my machine is not connected to the domain.What I want to do is running a web application locally under a domain account, and using the webdev server.The webapp uses the default authentication, windows authentication that is.I tried using impersonation with domainuser & password but I got the following error Could not create Windows user token from the credentials specified in the config file. Error from the operating system 'Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password.I have to mention that the username and the password are correct.
View 1 RepliesI have two domain servers X and Y.My Asp.net Web application is hosted on Domain X.But my scope is required to authorize the user of Domain Y on the Web application hosted on Domain X server.I am using Windows Authetication mode in application
View 2 RepliesSo my question is more in relation to what people consider to be the best practice and why:
I've been dropping literals into pages and repeaters and binding them in code behind for a while. Is this considered bad practice?
ie:
ASPX Page:
<asp: Literal id="litTextToInsert" runat="Server" />
Code Behind:
litTextToInsert.Text = objData.MyText;
OR (repeater):
[code]....
I personally dont like doing this as i find it makes it harder for me to know if someone changed the field name, or mis typed it during development - the other way you won't know until the page loads.
With the strongly typed version if something changes in your DAL etc the build will break - letting me know I've messed up.
Why do so many people appear to use weakly typed code in ASP.Net (in examples, MVC, etc)?
Am i missing something?
i have been developing an asp.net application with typed dataset.suddenly after adding a method to one of my tabel adapters and compiling the project this error occurs in compiling dataset: Failed to generate code.object reference not set to an instance of an object.
View 4 RepliesGiven the benefits of using strongly typed views to eliminate typed errors and the use of lambda expressions why would one use a dynamically typed view? When I use them I don't feel as safe as with strongly typed views. Am I missing something? Is there a special use for them?
View 2 RepliesI have 2 separate code-block asp.Net expressions in an aspx markup, with an html content between (span element in the example below). In the first code-block, there is "i" as an increment variable for the for loop.Then the code-block is cut with an html content.And another code-block expression is opened but as I see I can reach the "i" variable which was declared in the previous code-block.
So, how asp.net handles -compiles- the pieces of code-block experrions declared in the mark up? Does it check the semi-colons and generates some anonymous methods which will end up with many calls to Response.Write in the last place?
<p>
<%for (int i = 0; i < 30; i++)
{
[code]....
I have two websites.I want to validate,if the person who is signing in the 2nd website is come from the my 1st site.For example
if (websiteAcess == www.test.com)
{
allow user;
}
else{
deny user;
}
My question is how to get the value of websiteAcess?
I need little clarification regarding the Application Domain. As it has been said in the .net framework documentation "a process can have one or more application domain", Does it means There can be only one process in a machine dedicated for the .net application and whenever a new .net application gets executed, an application domain gets created in the above mentioned process?
View 2 RepliesI have developed web application using asp.net 3.5 ,c# 3.0 and visual studio 2008,sql server 2005. i have created .msi file to deploy application on server.. now for testing purpose running in lan for that i want give url name eg.now i'm accessing from LAN like this
http://192.168.1.1/xyz/abc.aspx
htt://compname/xyz/abc.aspx
instead of this i want to access like this
http://www.xyz.com/abc.aspx
I'm going to publish an asp.net pre-compiled web site on shared hosting account but I don't want my code to be copied and able to run on another domain. I need to check domain and if not example.com or www.example.com redirect to error page or show error as response.
EDIT: Here is my solution based on given answers
void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
string[] safeDomains = new string[] { "localhost",
"example.com", "www.example.com" };
if (!((IList)safeDomains).Contains(Request.ServerVariables["SERVER_NAME"]))
{
Response.Write("Domain not allowed!");
Response.End();
}
}
I have two web applications in ASP.NET which are quite the same (same business logic, same DAL, same DB scheme but different instance).
The only thing that I need to change is the design (logo, color,...) and the text (global and local resource) to adress two separate business sector. We cannot "subdomain" the application because we need the two app "seems to be" independant.
Is it a good idea to run only one instance for the 2 web applications.
For example :
I will have 2 hostnames : mycompagny.com and mycompagny2.com and I will put an HTTP Module which will set a string which will be propagated in my application like 'company' and 'company2'. I will instanciate the dal only once but the connection string will change depending on the string 'company' or 'company2'.
Just for information it is a Multi-Business and Multi-Tenant application because both application will have custom theme for some parts of the application.
For example :
mycompagny.com/Busineess1, mycompagny.com/Busineess2, mycompagny.com/Busineess3,..
and
mycompagny2.com/Busineess2, mycompagny2.com/Busineess2, mycompagny2.com/Busineess3,...
Can someone explain me what is is the relationship between App Domain and thread? msdn says "threads are free to cross application domain boundaries; a new thread is not created for each application domain." suppose there is one thread t inside Appdomain a1 .there is an another App domain a2 .thread t can cross to a2 from a1 means it can access a2 memory area If thread can cross the app domain boundaries share the memory space then how application domain isolation is still there?
View 5 RepliesI have a simple question but I still a bit confused after googling. The situation is like this. I have ASP.NET deployed in a Web Server, and had set to a Web Garden and IIS Worker Process is more than 1. So I would like to ask, is it all worker processes running under same Application Domain? Or can said Web Garden running under same Application Domain?
View 1 RepliesWe have an application gathering counter statistics and we would like the values to reset after executing the iisreset command and that's all.
Microsoft says Application_Start is:
Called when the first resource (such as a page) in an ASP.NET application is requested. The Application_Start method is called only one time during the life cycle of an application. You can use this method to perform startup tasks such as loading data into the cache and initializing static values.
This is how we're currently doing it:
protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
_counters.Get<AutoCounter>("TAS:RequestCount").Reset();
_counters.Get<AutoCounter>("TAS:RequestTime").Reset();
_counters.Get<AutoCounter>("TAS:TimeBetweenErrors").Reset();
_counters.Get<AutoCounter>("TAS:ErrorCount").Reset();
}
However, these are resetting at unexpected intervals. What determines when the application domain's life-cycle ends and this method is called on the next request?
Out of good design practice and organization, in which project should a local development SQL database be in a web based application? I'm just starting my assignment so I currently have 'CompanyName.Web.UI' and 'CompanyName.Domain' projects setup. Im using LinqToSql and creating my database from POCOS, meaning I'll have to create some code to generate the DB from my domain model. I.e.
DataContext dc = new DataContext(connString);
dc.GetTable<TableType>();
dc.CreateDatabase();
Since we can't post data to cross domains, I want to post the data to my aspx page and a code-behind code will take the data and submit to cross domain (which is not being operated by me, so I don't have permission to modify source code for jsonp) and also the website to which I pass my post data is also returning a cookie which includes shopping cart info and I need to store it on my local browser cache as well.
What I know is I need to use WebResponse and WebRequest classes for that manner.
I want to load data to my application domain using a thread so it will be executed at all times. How can I achieve this? I want the thread will start when iis starts and terminate when iis exits.
Note:
I want to do this so I can use disconnected architecture in my asp.net application.
There are two web applications App1 & App2. A user would submit his information on App1 though a form. On click of a specific button/link on App1, the same data should be posted to a page on App2 and the user should also be redirected to the same page on App2.I would like some help in finding out the best way to implement this functionality.
One of the approaches that I have already tried out is by creating a temporary HTML form at runtime, setting the action attribute of the form to the App2 Page and get the form posted by using javascript submit. The data can then be fetched on App2 page by using the response.form object.This approach works well, but i was still wondering if there is any other way to implement the required functionality.
give some insights on using RESTful webservices to implement this, or else, using some HttpModule to intercept requests at App1 and modify redirect response to app2 or any other approach that you might find fit for the purpose.
Edit: Using querystring isnt an option for me.
I have deployed the asp.net mvc application on the godaddy server under my domain. it is deployed successfully, but i am getting this error :
Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040)
As I checked on google i got solution here, i have applied same. also checked in web.config. it is looked like this If observed properly there is no declaration of mvc dll of version 1.0.0.0 it is of 2.0.0.0 . then why this error comes. I have given reference even of version 2.0.0.0. , applications bin folder have all the required dll's as mentioned in linked blog. then why should this error comes?
What is the difference between IIS Worker process, Application pool and application domain? Do we have more than one application domains in one application pool?Does one application domain means one virtual directory?
If we have 2 virtual directories pointing to same physical folder. Will they share the same memory or different when there instances are opened in the browser? Will they be in 2 different application domains?
I have built a website and now the customer wants to split it between three different domains. What is the best way to do this? This is what I have so far.
c:/website1/ points to www.website1.com
c:/website1/vd1/ points to www.website2.com
c:/website1/vd2/ points to www.website3.com
The webhost I'm working with has done it the following way, but now I'm getting a bunch of errors that seems like it's not seeing the App_code folder. Do I need to make a lot of changes? How does this affect the location references?
Suppose this is my website url: http://www.mydomain.com. And I have created one subdomain name as http://img.mydomain.com.
Now I want to upload image from my site http://www.mydomain.com to my subdomain http://img.mydomain.com through code.
Is it possible to upload image from website to subdomain?
to host two web applications in single application domain? For example two web applications web1 and web2 being hosted in single application domain.
View 3 Replies