I have a table that is not getting updated. My insert command is working fine. Here is the update code from business logic area and stored prodecure. The SP works fine when I execute it from sql mgmt studio and updates the table:
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Having serious trouble inserting data into my db... i am able to select and display data just not write it to the database..
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I have two tables in oracle ,
i want to update two table data in a single command...
how would i do my Gridview delete command like a update command?
im using a datasource... and my delete command is like my update command... so i can change the status into "INACTIVE"...
DeleteCommand="UPDATE ACCOUNT_MAINTENANCE SET am_status = 'INACTIVE' WHERE (accmain_no = @accmain_no)"
UpdateCommand="UPDATE [ACCOUNT_MAINTENANCE] SET [account_type] = UPPER(@account_type), [min_deposit] = @min_deposit, [min_capital] = @min_capital WHERE [accmain_no] = @accmain_no"
when i press my delete command at gridview... the status changed into "INACTIVE" but when i refresh or press f5... it automatically update the status into "INACTIVE" also...
what is the problem with my update command ? the error shows like "Must declare the scaler value @Name.
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I've recently started working in ASP.NET and RDBMS.I'm making a test form where I can do basic add,update,delete operations.I'm using OracleDataClient to do the DB operations.I was able to populate a listbox using OracleDataAdapter.
Now after clicking on update button,I intend to Update in DB.I've Dataadapter with it's update property.But the update query is not happening.The examples I saw over net all have Select command before Update.Is it actually like that or am I missing some point.
How does Oracle DataClient work with Insert,Update,Delete Commands.
Here's my scenario:
I'm using the ASP.Net Membership provider, but I don't want to allow system administrators to DELETE any users. Instead, I simply want to mark them as locked out (aspnet_Membership.IsLockedOut) of the system so they can't log in when an administrator assigns them to a role titled "Inactive". Make sense? Right now my trigger isn't throwing any errors, but it's not working either. Here's my trigger (which is on the aspnet_UsersInRoles table):
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I have update statement.
UPDATE SPECT SET SRE = CLSS.NEWSID
FROM SPECT
INNER JOIN
student (NOLOCK) ON student.ID = SPECT.ID
INNER JOIN CLSS
ON CLSS.GID = SPECT.GID
ON CLSS.GID = student.GID
WHERE student.PID = '20201'
AND CLSS.PID = '20201'
AND SRE IS NOT NULL
However, student.PID and ClSS.PID need dynamically reach through from table CLSS to get each row of PID.
Here my table CLSS
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How to finish this one?
I have table a and would like update table a whose values from table b, but not update all rows at table a. Only update record ID in table a match record ID in tableC.
Here is my query
update a
set a.Desc = b.Desc,
a.Value = b.Value
from TableA a, TableB b
where a.name = b.name
and a.ID = b.ID
and a.ID in ( select ID from TableC)
I only have 12 a.ID match TableC, but above query update whole TableA.
How to only update 12 record at TableA from TableB?
I have a page that binds data from DB to a DetailsView.I want to use the auto-generated Update command.
Everything went OK, and also updating was successful, but if I remove any field that I don't want to have chance to update, then the Update command doesn't update! the old values retain!
I mean: if all of the fields are present in the detailsView, the update will be OK, otherwise, the update will NOT update any thing.I've tried to mark the fields that I don't want to view as "Visible = 'false'" but with no good results!
I have a form that is being populated with data from a sql table. The user can update via textboxes information on the form and click update. The data should then be updated back to the table.
For some reason, When I add the parameters I need for the query, it is not grabbing the update from my textbox, it is showing the value that was populated upon load. I tried to change the customer's phone number. When I run my code it is pulling in the original phone number and not picking up my change.
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i want to update table using web service file, i am retriving value like this :
[WebMethod]
public DataSet getinfo()
{
SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=WEBTECHNO1WEBTECHNO;Initial Catalog=blogsite;Integrated Security=True");[code].....
how can i update table using this web service , what should return type in update and all these things...
Im trying to design a simple ASP Page where I can reset the IsLockedout to false. The page already identifiesand lists in an editable gridview which displays accounts which are locked out, using the following code:
SELECT [UserId], [IsApproved], [IsLockedOut], [LastLoginDate], [FailedPasswordAttemptCount], [UserName] FROM [vw_aspnet_MembershipUsers] WHERE ([IsLockedOut] = @IsLockedOut)
However when I run the edit and update it updates all the records and not just the one I am trying to edit. The code for the Update is: UPDATE aspnet_Membership SET IsLockedOut = 0I have tried various Where Clauses to restrict it to only the one account I am editing but I get lots of different syntax errors.
I have tow colums
nickname, and name, and I allready filled them with information, like this
nikname = gino
name = longinos
What I want now is both to have the same information
nikname = longinos
name = longinos
I thought of somethig like this
update
Customer set name
= nikname
where custID
= custID
but it does not work, and I can't think of something good
I think I'm just after advice on best practice with this! I have a database which has 2 tables. The first table has ID, Name, Address and the second table has ID and JobType. Table 02 can list multiple types of JobType so we could have
Table01:
1. D Smith. Address01
2. S.Jones. Address02
Table02
1. Accounts
1. Sales Ledger
1. Chartered Accountant
2. IT
2. Web Design
2. Graphic Design
2. 1st line support
A join gets them together and all works perfectly.However, the content will be updated when some one fills in a web form. Do get the form to send results to both tables, I assume I have to open the database twice or can I open it once and open each table one at a time? I know I could practice this and not ask the question but I am interested to know what is the most efficient way. I would also need to know what ID to use. So when I populate Table02 it uses the correct ID from Table01. At the moment Table01 ID field is incremented automatically. Would you suggest I always assign the ID myself, or would I need to query the database, find out what ID number is currently in use and then increment it by 1 and assign the new number to an ID variable which then populates the Table's Field? In which case, am I opening the database again or trying to perform all 2/3 stages in one go?
I have 2 programs running at a time.
Can i update the same table in sqlserver at a time by using 2 programs?
i will write one quire in this i will update two dates some fields like first table two colums and second table three columns , how to wirte quire
View 1 RepliesI have the following code-behind that executes when a user clicks a verification link from their email. The code works up to the sql update part - the user role is updated, then I get the error below. Can someone look at this and tell me what is going wrong:
Code-Behind:
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Error:
No mapping exists from object type System.Web.Security.MembershipUser to a known managed provider native type.
Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code.
Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: No mapping exists from object type System.Web.Security.MembershipUser to a known managed provider native type.
Source Error:
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Line 63: myCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ProfileVerify", 1);Line 64: myCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ProfileVerifyDate", DateTime.Now.ToString());Line 65: myCommand.ExecuteNonQuery();Line 66: myConnection.Close();Line 67: }
I have created normalised data tables to hold look up information (such as venues, players, teams etc) and want to dynamically update the 'matches' data table (my transactions) using webpages instead of running SQL queries.
What I want to do is select a name from a drop down list and then post the relevant ID associated with that name to my 'matches' table. At the moment I can only link to the value in the drop down list, i.e. the name which is incompatible with the validation which expects a primary key integer.
I'm sure this problem is a fairly common one but I haven't found the right answer on any of the tutorials or blogs, all of them assume that the data is de-normalised or describe things in more technical ways than I can yet understand. If anyone can point me to a 'how to article' or tell me what I am doing wrong, I would be grateful.
My site extracts data from a MS SQL db and then connects to a mySql db which it writes the data to. My site is working properly when connecting to a db in cPanel at a remote website.
However, I have a mysql db also hosted on my site, and I'm connecting to it ok, but the loop is failing. There are 2 tables, one stores the category, and the other stores link data.
For each category
write to the category table
for each link in this category
write to the link table
next
next
The tables are being created, and the very first category is written to the table, but then nothing gets written to the link table.
How can I make this generate an error message? My webhost doesn't know what to do about it and they just want to see an error message.
I tried this once already, and neither of my lines worked:
HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(lnkid & " " & url)
Why doesn't that get written into the source of the page on each iterance of the loop? How do I see the data that isn't being written?
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This is my table structure:-
Field1 Filed2 Date
A 20 01/01/2011 12:30:00am
B 50 02/01/2011 12:30:00am
C 30 02/01/2011 12:30:00am
D 20 02/01/2011 12:30:00am
E 60 01/01/2011 12:30:00am
If Its any insert and update for the above table i need to set the getdate() for my Date column... like trigger how to do this in ms sql...
How to update data table value in ServerTwo from serverOne?
I have one proc in severOne. After finishing some task in proc, I need update value at the table at another serverTWO from this proc..,
openrow set need admin permission. Is any way to finish without giving admin permission?
Im trying to make a web chat using ajax control tool kit. There is a script mannager, the update panel and the timer. I inserted the textbox for showing every text that is introduced by the users, the text for writing and the send button are out. It works great but if im writing some text in the exact moment of refreshing time (winch happends a lot because its every 3 sec) it does not let me write correctly cause the textbox kind of blink and you miss a letter. So, wich is the correct method for doing this without lossing the fluidity of the writing.
View 1 RepliesWhen I add an update command to my page and run the page I get this error message
Server Error in '/MYApplication.
Incorrect syntax near '-'.Must declare the scalar variable "@recnum".
Description:An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code.
Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Incorrect syntax near '-'.Must declare the scalar variable "@recnum".
Source Error:
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Stack Trace: [Code]....
Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3082; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082
Here is my code
<asp:SqlDataSource
ID="SqlDataSource1"
runat="server"[code]....
I don't understand how the stored procedure is returning false. It's supposed to continue looping and continue writing rows. Right now it writes the very first row, and then it goes into the If Not AdvanceLinkBanned.Add(banrec) Then and it goes in here, prints the message and exits the sub. Why is it thinking the add returns false? If Not AdvanceLinkBanned.Add(banrec) ? Doesn't this return the id of the new record? Isn't this not zero? Zero would make it false. How can this be false? Isn't it supposed to return the next record created ? Doesn't SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY() return the value of the record id? How do I test this?
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