I have a server side control RaiseCallbackEvent implemented. I want to intercept raisecallbackevent after it finished executing RaiseCallbackEvent method in the serverside and want to execute other code in the .aspx template.
1) Is there any pagelife cycle event that fires after RaiseCallbackEvent?
2) Is there any way to fire jquery function after RaiseCallbackEvent from client side?
I have a username textbox on a form, that has a few validation rules applied to it via the DataAnnotation attributes:
[Required(ErrorMessage = "FTP login is required")]
[StringLength(15, ErrorMessage = "Must be 15 characters or fewer")]
[RegularExpression(@"[a-zA-Z0-9]*", ErrorMessage = "Alpha-numeric characters only")]
public string FtpLogin { get; set; }
I also have a button next to this text box, that fires off a jQuery ajax request that checks for the existence of the username as follows:
<button onclick="check(this);return false;" id="FtpLoginCheck" name="FtpLoginCheck">Available?</button>
I'm looking for a way of tieing the two together, so that the client-side validation is performed before the call to the "check(this)" in the onclick event.
Edit: To be more clear, I need a way to inspect or trigger the client-side validation result of the textbox, when I click the unrelated button beside it.
Edit: I now have the button JS checking for $("form").validate().invalid, but not displaying the usual validation messages.
We send out registration urls to clients via email. Some of the email clients are turning the url intourl <url>I think it may be happening when users forward the email onto themselves at which point the email client re-formats the original email (maybe)[URL]Which rightly producesSystem.Web.HttpRequestValidationException: A potentially dangerous Request.QueryString value was detectedWhere in the code should I intercept these instances and santize the url so that the user is re-directed onto the original form of the url?
View 1 Repliesclear me server side query string in asp.net
View 1 RepliesIn my web application, i am using a RaiseCallbackEvent which gets fired on form change(to give AutoSave functionality).The problem is, if i have Requied field for 2 or more fields, on firing an event, required filed validation is asked & on entering values, RaiseCallbackEvent fires as there is form change.In this case the last postback event is also getting fired along with RaiseCallbackEvent which is creating undesireable results. Is there any way to stop this? ...
View 2 RepliesI have some sql records, table has 3 columns as userID, name, city. I want to take the records with ; select name, city from where city='New York' it turns 5 or 6 records. I want to add them to a string side by side like string record="michael NewYork, marshall New York, liz New York, Forest New York";
How can do I take it ?
what I can replace the bold line with to get it working with EventArgs e? I copied this code from a button function with CommandEventArgs e.
protected void btnNextStep_Click(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
if (cboxShippingSelect.Checked == true)
[Code]....
If I have a standard HTML textbox
[Code]....
but got a readonly error.
I am trying to set a hidden type value to x on Server Side and then access it with Javascript. I have tried multiple ways to accomplish this.
At the basic level this is what I am trying to do.
Aspx page
<asp:HiddenField ID="HidRowNumber" runat="server" />
CS Page
In IsPostBack
HidRowNumber.Value = EFileRowNumber.Text;
Javscript
var status = document.getElementById("<%= HidRowNumber.ClientID %>").value;
When I am debugin it say it HidRowNumber's Value has changed to x but when I access the value with JS it always returns ''.
i can use escape() and unescape() functions by Client side easily, but the problem when i have use escape() method for peice of HTML , then i dont know how to unescape this piece of HTMl By Server Side not By Client Side. how i can unescape (escapped HTML) by server side?
View 2 RepliesI have a hidden variable and its value is being updated using javascript(client side) which I make a call from server side code. After making the call I am not able to retrieve the updated value from Server side variable. I went through this forum [URL] but not able find a way how to implement functionality with IFRAME. I am trying to call the client side code and retrieve the updated value from server side in page_load event.
View 5 RepliesYour example doesn't work, or I have missed something, I work on a website for information...
I have null in my variable ...
Protected Sub Submit(sender As Object, e As System.EventArgs)
Dim values As String = Request.Form(ListBox1.ID)
TextBox1.Text = values
End Sub
I have created dynamic control with both server and client side events.. if i set client side event server side event is not firing.. I have created the link button which will validate and do some necessary actions.. Validation is working but click event of link button is not firing .. if we remove the client side event , server side event is firing.. how to avoid this.. I want both events..
View 2 RepliesHow could i call a javascript function in server side. I have to call the javascript function on the click of a linkbutton which inside a repeater control.
View 5 RepliesI have a requirement in which I have to call a JavaScript function in between my server side event and in that JavaScript function code I have to set hidden field value and in next line of that same event i have to use that hidden field value.
View 4 RepliesArgh.. I've run into thei before,but can't remember how I solved it.I have a gridview with a button in a template field.I've added an event to the button,but am getting the dreaded 'RowIndex' is not a member of 'System.EventArgs' error.
I'm trying to grab the value of a label in the gridview for the row that is selected when the button is clicked.Should I be using something other than e.RowIndex?
[Code]...
I was reading about the fact that you can turn an IFrame control into a server object if you give it the runat="server" attribute. So I did that, for the purpose of running a website WITHIN our network. What I mean is that I want the site that loads INSIDE the frame to be loaded from WITHIN our network's IP address, and not the remote location's (browser's) IP address.Does this not work this way or am I barking up the wrong tree with IFrames?
I have a situation with dozens of remote locations, many of which I cannot easily get static IPs for, using a web based service that has IP restrictions in their hosting environment. I am essentially trying to, via our web server, FUNNEL all the users in the field through our network via an IFrames webpage, so that they can access this service which requires static IPs. They are okay with this, at the service we are using, if I can get this idea working.
VPN is not an option. These users are ehhhhh... no comment. For that matter, I don't feel comfortable with these remote users being on my network as anything but a port 80 web user, because of the potential for viruses.
The code for the asp.net page is:
<div class="facebox_content">
<% if (CurrentUser.Role == "Free")
{
%>
<table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" style="border-collapse:collapse;width:380px;">
<tr>
<td>
User Name :
</td>
<td>
Membership Cost :
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td style="width:190px;">
<asp:TextBox ID="txtUserName" Enabled="false" runat="server" Text="<%= CurrentUser.Name %>"/>
</td>
<td style="width:190px;">
<asp:TextBox ID="txtCost" Enabled="false" runat="server" Text="2000"/>
</td>.........
I Getting A Problem In DataGrid's ItemDataBound Event. I Am Calling A JavaScript Function In DataGrid's ItemDataBound Which Retrun The CellIndex And RowIndex Number On Which UserClick After That I Am Re-Binding The DataGrid With jQuery Function After That ItemDataBound Event Not Working. I Want To Call The Same Function Again. Is Their Any Method To Call A Server-Side Function On ItemDataBound Event Except Client-Side Function..
View 4 RepliesI have Sub that requires EventArgs as below.
Sub Testing(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs)
If I want to call the Sub from PageLoad event, I wrote like this Testing(nothing,nothing)
Then, in the Sub, I would like to check If Argment is Nothing or not
Dim testID As String
If (CType(sender, LinkButton).CommandArgument) = Nothing
testID=Request.QuerySting("myID")
ELSE
testID=(CType(sender, LinkButton).CommandArgument).ToString
End If
I get Null error at if statement (If (CType(sender, LinkButton).CommandArgument) = Nothing)
This may be a basic question. I know __doPostback() function accepts 2 arguments, eventtarget and eventargs. eventtarget is used to identify the control that causes postback. Then what is the use of eventargs in doPostback function?? I saw the _doPostback function always set the __EVENTARGUMENT hidden field to nothing for any postbacks caused thro controls with even autopostback to true or a control like linkButton.
View 2 RepliesHow to use multiple query string in client side.
E.g.
it is for single value
<a class="lightbox-image" href="producticon.aspx?cat=Duravit">
Rebook
</a>
second page
page_load
{
lblCategory.Text= Request.QueryString["cat"];
}
I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission.
The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page.
To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization.
In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page.
So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either.
What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response:
if (permissionDenied)
{
Context.Response.StatusCode = 401;
Context.Response.Clear();
Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied");
Context.Response.Flush();
[code]....
First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that.
Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on.
I have a requirement of adding server side variables in client side and other way round. Because I need to set a value from client side using javascript and access the same in code behind page.
I have to use C#.Net and JavaScript.
Suppose I'm building a StackOverflow clone using webforms ASP.NET and jQuery. The Question page has a question, several answers, and comments under each. Requirements:Users can post new answers and comments, and edit existing ones, without postbacks. No UpdatePanels; the AJAX calls retrieve just the JSON they need, not HTML fragments. The page loads with all existing answers and comments in place (no javascript needs to run to read the page).
What I'm trying to figure out is how to do this without having to maintain two sets of markup (one that's bound on the client using some form of jQuery templating, and one that's bound on the server using traditional WebForms).