I have a GridView and I need update some data inserting HTML CODE; I would need this data been stored encoded and decoded on request.
I cannot in any way disable globally "Request Validation" and not even at Page Level, so I would need a solution to disable "Request Validation" at Control Level.
At the moment I am using a script which should Html.Encode every value being update, butt seems that "Request Validation" start its job before event RowUpdating, so I get the Error "Page A potentially dangerous Request.Form ... ".
Is there a way to disable request validation on an action without having to add the line <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0"/> to Web.config? I'm currently posting XML to a controller action and get the "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value..." error. Is disabling request validation the only way to get the post to work, or is there some way I can intercept and encode the value that contains XML between the view and the controller action?
WebApp1: on IIS and configured with Windows authentication. Get User account from AD.
WebAPP2: a java web app on another windows box in same domain with authentication from AD
On web app1, I have a http handler like
public class MyHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string url = "http://WebApp2/Test"; HttpWebRequest myReq = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); CredentialCache myCache = new CredentialCache(); NetworkCredential netCredential = new NetworkCredential("myname", "mypassword", ""); myCache.Add(new Uri(url), "Basic", netCredential); //... myReq.Credentials = myCache; //.... } }
in above way, I can set authentication in code and pass it WebApp2.
But I don't want to put name and password in code. User info already available on WebApp1: in context.User I can find out the user info who already logined into WebApp1, so I want to pass this credential to WebApp2. I have tried to do following:
I'm interested in identifying a means to verify the server-side validation is performing as expected, but need to bypass the client-side validation being done using ASP.NET validation controls. To test this, I've tried using the form Poster add-on to Firefox that allowed me to get/modify the page contents and post it, but the .NET framework interpreted the submission as harmful and threw an application error ("A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected from the client").I've created a WinForm that includes a WebBrowser control and I'm able to manipulate the contents of the web page and invoke the button click, but am interested in seeing how to allow a postback with invalid input values. I don't want to assume the server-side validation works (even though I do check if Page.IsValid on the server on postback).This submits the web form in the WebBrowseer control and the expected client-side validation fires: extendedWebBrowser1.Document.GetElementById(formButtonName).InvokeMember("click"); This is how I've manipulated some of the page contents (this just prevents submission): mshtml.IHTMLDocument2 doc = extendedWebBrowser1.Document.DomDocument as mshtml.IHTMLDocument2; string html = doc.body.innerHTML; html.Replace("Page_ValidationActive = false", "Page_ValidationActive = true"); doc.body.innerHTML = html.ToString(); extendedWebBrowser1.Document.GetElementById(formButtonName).InvokeMember("click");
While using Ajax in web applications we use XML to transfer the data between server and client. However XSS validation comes into picture, So questions are,1. Is passing XML like this is correct?2. Are we exposed to security issues if we turn off XSS validation?3. Can passing Ajax request with header (content-type = application/xml) solve this problem ?JSON is also good approach to transfer the data but that to invoke XSS.
When I fire a get request to a view in my application for some reason my model validation messages are displaying immediately on the page even before a form submit.
I read that I need to turn the validation to version of 2.0 to make the validateRequest="false" attribute working. Well, but how to allow requests containing html in 4.0? How can I keep the 4.0 validation scheme and allow such request to come in, say for particular web page?
I don't understand why I should lower the security of other requests like web services . So what's the 4.0 way of doing that, really?
I have always been able to turn off request validation on IIS and cassini when I need to post HTML from an HTML Editor. Problem is I can't seem to do so on IIS express. Have tried the following:
I created a little web service to minify JavaScript, and everything was nice, with all my tests passing. Then I noticed a bug: if I tried to minify alert('<script>');, it would throw a HttpRequestValidationException.
So that's easy enough to fix. I'll just add [AllowHtml] to my controller. But what would be a good way to unit test that this doesn't happen in the future?
The following was my first thought:
[TestMethod] public void Minify_DoesntChokeOnHtml() { try { using (var controller = ServiceLocator.Current.GetInstance<MinifyController>()) { return controller.Minify("alert('<script></script>');"); } } catch (HttpRequestValidationException) { Assert.Fail("Request validation prevented HTML from existing inside the JavaScript."); } }
However, this doesn't work since I am just getting a controller instance and running methods on it, instead of firing up the whole ASP.NET pipeline.
What would be a good unit test for this? Maybe reflector on the controller method to see if the [AllowHtml] attribute is present? That seems very structural, and unlikely to survive a refactoring; something functional might make more sense.
When a user presses Button1 on the Webpage, I would like to copy slightly modified string from txt1 (Text) into txt2 (Text). The problem is sometimes I get an error "a potentially dangerous request.form value was detected from the client validaterequest". I get this error when special symbols llike "<" or ">" are in txt1.Text.I've read about that problem. That error is to prevent from hackers who can input scripts into the txt1.All I did is:
1) Put validateRequest="false" into <%@ Page Language="VB" validateRequest="false" at Default.aspx.
Now it works and allows to take any data from txt1, slightly modify it and put into txt2.So, my question is: Did a level of security was reduced after I wrote validateRequest="false" ? Any code should be added to keep the good level of security? Or, I'd better use another way to copy txt1 to txt2?
I've got a Silverlight app that has to accept some initial data when it fires up. That data, unfortunately, MUST come from XML input. In addition, I can't just pass it through the URL because the actual request is coming from a server external to my own.
So the basic setup is this: Remote server needs to launch my app. Remote server pops open a window on the user's PC with a URL directed at a CGI application that can accept the XML input. The CGI app parses the input and spits out an HTML page containing the Silverlight app with all of the init params set. Long story short: When the Silverlight app is opened this way I can't debug it. I attach to the process, but none of the break points can be hit.
I tried every way in the world to get the ASP.NET page that would normally host the Silverlight app to accept the XML in the URL but it would get stripped by ASP.NET because of security reasons and no amount of modifying the config file would fix it (since it was stemming from the other web server presumably).
I have a form that I have been getting submissions that have punctuation and special characters that trigger the potentially dangerous Request.Form value error. I have been trying use the httpUtility.htmlencode and Server.htmlencode method to sanitize textboxes and textareas.All my tests do not fire because the built-in request validation of the 4.0 framework prevents the code-behind from executing to perform the sanitization. I have included the ValidateRequest in the page header but no matter what I set it too it still does the same thing.
I'm looking for a way of tieing the two together, so that the client-side validation is performed before the call to the "check(this)" in the onclick event.
Edit: To be more clear, I need a way to inspect or trigger the client-side validation result of the textbox, when I click the unrelated button beside it.
Edit: I now have the button JS checking for $("form").validate().invalid, but not displaying the usual validation messages.
This is probably going to end up as a stupid question, but countless research has offered me no results. I know there are different types of errors I want to check for, and when I should be throwing an exception for "exceptional" errors, and that I should create validating functions for input and other checks. My problem is, how do I send an error back to a page when the data entered fails in a separate class?
For Example:
User input entered in Page1.aspx, click calls Submit() in Class.vb Class.vb finds that input is invalid How do I update Page1.aspx label to say "Hey, that is not right".
im rather new to this and unsure of how to complete the task in the title. I currently have a text box called txtmodule, i want to restict the user from entering any number except 20 or 40. How can i do this using a RegularExpressionValidator or is there a better way?
I am having N numbers of Text boxes those are generating dynamically. I want to validate each textbox for Formate HH:MM:SS PM/AM so i dynamicaly create the validation control . but as the dynamic textbox has no ID , so what i have to pass to the Validation control for ControlToValidate Property ?
I'm using a CustomValidator control to validate some controls in a GridView. I have the validation working perfectly on the client and the server, but would ideally like to pass the GridView ID into the client function so I can move it out into a separate
.js file. The signature for my client function is:
function valOrder_ClientValidate(source, args) { // Code here}
And my CustomValidator control looks like:
[Code]....
Is there a way I can pass an additional parameter into this function?
I've just finished and published my most recent version of
[URL]
but when I try to validate the website using http://validator.w3.org it is giving me few errors.
I noticed that I have multiple <title> tags in my pages and reason for that is because I am using master pages. What happened is my master pages are using <head> tag and <title> tag inside, then default page will have <asp:content ID="Content2" runat="server" contentplaceholderid="head"> and here I'll have another <title> tag.
The question is obviously I am having duplicate <title> tags across my entire website. Which <title> tags should I remove, the one in <head> tag of my master page, or the one on every other page such as one specified in default.aspx?
I would think that master page should not have the title and any other meta tags such as <meta name = "keywoards", "description" etc since I am repeating it in all other pages but is my thinking correct?
I am using one datalist control for uploading multiple images.I hv used one Asp:FileUplaod Control and one button in one itemtemplate.I am using reqired field validator and regular expression validator for file upload cntrl I am assigning validation group for both of them on ItemDataBound event of my datalist so that each upload cntrl hv same validaton group as required field and regular expression validator.Now what i want to do is - i want to show my error message in validation summary which is right at the top of the page.I want one know how to write javascript that will assign validation group of my control in datalist on which i click ?
I have a webservice which works 100% fine on my developer machine. Where Web Service is installed on LOCALHOST on my developer machine,Then i went to my servers, I installed webservice on one server and map it with the server where the website is hosted, Then i tried accessing this service using BROWSER from my web server, it worked fine, That means the mapping was done perfect.Then i run my program on web server (website). It worked fine on page1, then on page2, but when i did the same and call same function on page3, It popped me any error of
Is it at all possible to inject a request into IIS for a page, have IIS and ASP.Net handle it as normal, but get the response as html handed back to me programmatically?
Yes, I know that I could connect to port 80 using WebRequest and WebResponse, but that becomes difficult if you are accessing the IIS server from the same physical machine (loopback security controls et al).
Basically, I want to inject the request (eg for [URL]) between the points at which IIS would normally talk to the browser, and the point at which it would route it to the correct ASP.Net application, and get a response back from IIS between the points at which ASP.Net/IIS applies the httpfilters and hands the html back to the browser.
I'm predominantly working with IIS7 so if there is a solution that works just for IIS7 then thats not an issue.
when i browse the page with firefox and click on the input Request.Params["btnshoppingCart"] != null or Request.Form["btnshoppingCart"] != null is statisfied.
When i browse the same page with internet explorer 8 and click on the same input Request.Params["btnshoppingCart"] != null or Request.Form["btnshoppingCart"] != null is not satisfied. When i used the watch i saw that there is no key by the name of "btnshoppingCart" in either Request.Form or Request.Params if input is clicked from internet explorer. However when it is clicked from firefox there is value "shoppingCart" inside Request.Form and Request.Params against "btnshoppingCart" key. One more strange thing that i observed was that are two keys "btnshoppingCart.x" and "btnshoppingCart.y" inside both Request.Form and Request.Params whenver clicking is done from both internet explorer and firefox. This is happening against all inputs of type image irrespective if the input is present inside a html form or not. Forms are created like this
<% using (Html.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", FormMethod.Post)){%>
The version of internet explorer is 8.0 and firefox is 3.6.6
I there a way to know if a request is a soap request on AuthenticateRequest event for HttpApplication? Checking ServerVariables["HTTP_SOAPACTION"] seems to not be working all the time.
public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(AuthenticateRequest); } protected void AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { app = sender as HttpApplication; if (app.Request.ServerVariables["HTTP_SOAPACTION"] != null) { // a few requests do not enter here, but my webservice class still executing // ... } } I have disabled HTTP POST and HTTP GET for webservices in my web.config file. <webServices> <protocols> <remove name="HttpGet" /> <remove name="HttpPost" /> <add name="AnyHttpSoap" /> </protocols> </webServices> Looking at ContentType for soap+xml only partially solves my problem. For example, Cache-Control: no-cache Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Length: 1131 Content-Type: text/xml Accept: */* Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Accept-Language: ro Host: localhost mymethod: urn:[URL]
Some clients instead of having the standard header SOAPAction: [URL], have someting like in example above. "mymethod" represents the method in my web service class with [WebMethod] attribute on it and [URL] is the namespace of the webservice. Still the service works perfectly normal. The consumers use different frameworks (NuSOAP from PHP, .NET, Java, etc).
