I've got a bit of code that I started to manage, and it's begun to fail due to some data missing in the database. This case could happen in the future, so I'd like to gracefully handle the nulls in the front end. Here's the current code:
It doesn't seem to have any affect on it, and the page still throws a NullReferenceException. It needs to be a Bind() due to the two-way data binding requirement, so I can't use Eval(). I've tried to use the null-coallescing operator "??" but that gives me a compilation error stating that Bind() does not exist in the current context. That could would look like this:
etc., which is placed inside of an ItemTemplate inside of a TemplateColumn. In the CodeBehind page I will bind a value to the OrderXml field, which occasionally is NULL.
i created a unit test project with the built-in unit testing from vs 2008. i noticed that when running a unit test and in particular when the class i am testing attempts to set a value from the app.config file using the configurationsettings, the configuration settings object always has 0 keys...and thus my value i am trying to use is always null...is there anything about the unit testing structure that would return null values from the app config when i know the keys are there...the existing program uses those keys for email addresses and such already.
Recently for a class to implement unit test for one of its private methods I used PrivateObject by creating private accessor instead of refelection, to which i received a code review comment as below
"My main concern with Private Object is the use of object[] in constructor. It replaces strong typing enforced by compiler with JavaScript-style run-time error detection.Consequently , personally, I would not recommend it."
Comments above confused me beacuse as per my understanding reflection also needs the object[] to invoke any method.
am working as a web developer in a company. I am not aware of anything related to testing. Our company is planning to buy some testing softwares. Presently we are working on ASP.NET. We will be working on PHP and JAVA in future. I need your help to find out the best but cost effective testing sofwares.on TFS and Visual Studio Testing tool.
I'm currently building a .net web application that uses WCF web services to allow a Flex front end to access the database.
I'm in the process of setting up some unit/integration style testing on the web services and am trying to work out the best way to allow the tests to access and modify data in a separate test database.
Currently, the connection string in my unit test project points to my testing database, and the connection string in my web services project points to my development database. However, as I am using Linq it appears that when I call the web service methods from my test class, it uses the development database connection string. I have looked into creating mock objects or in-memory database but I believe the same issue would occur.
Is there a way to get this to work, or is my entire idea about what I want incorrect, in which case is there a better way to set this up?
I have setup my business object to have a create_date and edit_date members both datetime datatypes. My company want to display the create_date and edit_date fields in a gridview for each transaction. The problem i have is that after insterting a record it will have a valid create_date but no edit_date and when displayed in the gridview it defaults to datetime.minvalue (My default). How on earth do i show an empty field in my gridview for a null datetime field in the database?
I am using similar architecture to the Imar Spaanjaars example of a tiered solution. With a few small tweeks it has worked well for me for ages. I am passing a List<Database> to my object datasource which connects to my gridview.
I have a stored procedure to insert data into Table B, but when I tried to insert a null value into column ID of table B, this error came up:
The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint "FK_tableB_tableA". The conflict occurred in database "database name", table "table A", column 'ID'.
I am guessing adding nothing to the null value column is the problem, but i don't know how to fix it... The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint "FK_tableB_tableA". The conflict occurred in database "database name", table "table A", column 'ID'.
I have a problem with a SessionVariable. I will explain what is happening:
1. From the default.aspx I send Session["LoginByAdmin"] = "Dummy"; and then redirect to this page where I have the code below. So the Page_Load sees that this Session["LoginByAdmin"] != null and enter this page. This works fine !
2. In the Page_Load, I later fill a ListBox1 with foldernames.
3. With Button1_Click1, I will now delete the choosen Folder in the ListBox1 wich works fine the first time and the ListBox updates the new existing folders in the ListBox. (I have wrapped this inside an updatepanel)
The problems comes now when I try to delete a choosen folder in the ListBox1 the second time in a row. When I select a Folder in the ListBox1 and now Press Button1, I will be redirected to "Default.aspx". This meens that this code is running: (That meens that Session["LoginByAdmin"] == null and I have not set this to null anywhere. This is my big question how this variable can be = null here?
if (Session["LoginByAdmin"] == null) Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); break;
I am using dropdownlist in my view page with some values which will display corresponding ID(primary key of other table) in my database.If i leave my dropdownlist blank and save it in database then its showing null parameter error. Can you explain how to use this reference type to overcome this error
In my code behind, I have the following code that I want to insert a null value for a parameter. Instead of doing that, it is adding the word "NULL" to my database. What am I doing wrong?
How do i set the label's text depending on the data field value. e.g. if it's proper datetime value then display it, otherwise display "unknown". Please notice that it's inline C# code
I am building an MVC 2 web app, where I want to display information about something (the parent) as well as child details which are displayed as rows (children have a many to one relationship to the parent).I have implemented AJAX in MVC before using Ajax.BeginForm and partial views Using this method - with minor changes for MVC 2 release.
I want to add the ability to edit child rows inline using ajax, but I would like to know how others implement this. Are there facilities in MVC that can do this?
I have a project made with inline code. How can I most quickly move inline code to codebehind for each webform? First, how can I add a codebehind page aspx.c or aspx.vb to one that doesn't have one?
Is it possible to do things in a PHPish way in ASP.Net? I've seen <%= %> but I've tried it and couldn't get it to work. The PHPish equivalent of what I want to do is
I've got a repeater on my asp.net (VB): <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Question_Number") %>' /> <%#Eval("Question_Desc")%>
Now what I want to do is, check a value that I haven't used called "Question_Type" which could be = 1, 2 or 3 depending if it is multiple choice, short answer, etc. I have tried this:
<% if Eval("Question_type") = 1 then Response.Write(" <asp:RadioButton runat=""server"">test1</asp:RadioButton>") Response.Write(" <asp:RadioButton runat=""server"">test2</asp:RadioButton>") Response.Write(" <asp:RadioButton runat=""server"">test3</asp:RadioButton>") end if %>
and I get this error: Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control. HOW can I use this value in a if statement?
I have aspx page where there is no code behind. Server side Code written inside tag with runat server attribute.
ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this.GetType(), "Email", "GetEmail();"); in page_load() event, it just print GetEmail(); when page load html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function GetEmail() [code]...
I've been using code behind files since day one. Now, I have this funky example that uses inline code. How do I use inline code that needs to be executed in Page_Load() while VS still gives me a code behind page? Do I remove the Page_Load event from code behind file?
<form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" >
Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted.
The actual result of this is the following html:
<form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" id="form1">
The url ends up like this:
http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>
Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused.
To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0.
Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped.
But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.
