In one web page we use a flash upload control but becouse a flash bug in the upload event the session is lost as its posted back with a new session.
We have tought of using a table with ip and old session id or a query string with the old session id in order to reassing it in the uploaded event...
Knowing the old session id how can i reassign it to the client? (In C#)
I'm using the new Aurigma Image Uploader Flash control, and creating sample pages works great. However, when I drop this control onto an existing page on my existing site, it doesn't work. I can only suspect something in the masterpage or something else on the page is messing with it.
POST http://localhost:15361/myaccount/placead/new.aspx?postFiles=1 HTTP/1.1
Host: localhost:15361
Connection: keep-alive
Referer: http://localhost:15361/WebResource.axd?d=lAdTukuIRYXXlkVPS6yEQZdE0ZRhHxifFcDrPbzU_MDuk0OznXELaqd3rcUkbR18raDHqf4pWx6gUcGn391SmV3WbAt2TQUplpFdDsAU-K_ZPuSQ_dytDj992Foht1WO0&t=634202353399418554
Content-Length: 891463
x-preprocess-required: true
[code]...
I'm developing chat application. I use flash as front end and asp.net back-end. My question is: can my asp.net web app send data to flash app in browser without post back ?actually it mean asp.net push data to flash client. I don't know much about flash or siverlight, dose flash support to do that ? or other way help me connect direct from server to browser without using post back or Jabber ?
View 4 RepliesI have a aspx called user-photo-upload.aspx and another aspx called get-photo.aspx. I set the Session["PhotoId"] in the page_load method of user-photo-upload.aspx.
If I visit the user-photo-upload.aspx through the browser normally, the session can be retrieved in get-photo.aspx. But if the flash uploads photo to the user-photo-upload.aspx page, I can't get the Session["PhotoId"] in get-photo.aspx.
I discover that the Session ID is different when visiting the page using browser normally or by flash. I don't know why flash uses another session.
im now using FancyUpload (flash upload) to allow user to upload files in a small project. I use Generic Handler to handler in server when user uploads his file, but i'm getting error: Can't get session in Generic Handler (.ashx) when using Firefox or Chrome etc except IE I read so many solution and finally found out that Flash has some bug that can't send cookie in Firefox or Chrome except IE, Maybe i can check the session in Flash before it's start to send the file to the server or check session in Generic Handler before save it
View 2 RepliesI am trying to retrieve SessionItemShory column for given sessionid.The data stored is serialized so we need to deserialize the data to use it.I am trying to do that but its not working.
[Serializable]
public class sessiondata {
public string username { get; set; }
public string country { get; set; }
public string city { get; set; }
[code]...
I am a student and i want to make online gaming website as a part of my academic project.
Now the problem that i am facing is that as it is an academic project i have to use downloaded swf games into my project . now i want to fetch the highest score for an individual for a particular game and i want to store that data into my database so that i can populate the list of high scorers for any particular game on my webpage.
Have not run the ASP.NET Development Server for a while. Today I copied a production website to my workstation and ran it with VS 2008. The following error message popped up. What is the problem with the ASP.NET development Server on my workstation? The website on the Production server still ran okay.Unable to make the session state request to the session state server. Please ensure that the ASP.NET State service is started and that the client and server ports are the same. If the server is on a remote machine, please ensure that it accepts remote requests by checking the value of KEY_LOCAL_MACHINESYSTEMCurrentControlSetServicesaspnet_stateParametersAllowRemoteConnection.
If the server is on the local machine, and if the before mentioned registry value does not exist or is set to 0, then the state server connection string must use either 'localhost' or '127.0.0.1' as the server name.
I'm trying to add Embeded flash in aspx page running on iis 7.5 windows server 2008. When i'm adding the Embeded code src=/mylocation/test.swf it works fine. But when I'm adding fileserver location src="file:\c: est.swf the page doesn't load.
The code works fine in normal html file on my desktop.
I have done an multiple upload with uplodify jquery, but when i check it in a system with no flash player installed a blank area is present in the region of the uplodify flash button, how can i show the user some missing plug-in like in other sites to install latest flash player plug-in... or suggest some option to make upload possible in a button click (single/multiple) even when user don't have flash installed.
View 2 RepliesI have an existing asp.net mvc website that uses basic forms authentication. The site has a login page that posts back to a login action, which logs the user in via FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(). I am looking to add an api to the site, as an mvc2 area, where users would be authenticated based on a token passed as an http header. This area will consist of only json actions, so redirecting the user to a login page doesn't make sense. Instead, I want the users to just pass a token along with each request. That token is mapped to each user account and the user would be authenticated automatically.
I'm struggling with where to put this logic. At this point, the best choice seems to be adding the header lookup logic and authentication to the Global.asax in the Application_AuthenticateRequest method. I want to avoid needing to redirect the user after calling FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(), though. I want the login action to be transparent to them. Am I approaching this the wrong way? As a side note: Requiring a username/password for api requests is not possible, as the site has a mix of users. Some joined using OpenID while the rest joined with a username/password.
I have to call functions in dataaccesslayer depending on the type of xmlrequest
xmlreq.loadXml(<Request><UserName value=""UserName""></UserName><Password value=""Password""></Password></Request>)
msg.Request=xmlreq
how would I call dataAccessLayer.Function1() if xmlreq looks like above (username and password)else call function2()
I have some problems. Im developing web apps with Youtube APIs( feeds). The problem is: - Client visit my site, my site use XmlDocument object to load xml feeds from youtube server with my server IP address for request feed.However, youtube API is limited number request feed per IP address at the same time. -I want to assign Client IP to request Youtube APIs feed instead of my server ip address to avoid limitation.
View 1 RepliesWhat happen if web.config gets updated while ASP (ASP.NET 2.0) server still process client request?
- Will the process be killed?
- If not, will the process read the updates in web.config.
Probably one of those things you know and use every day without thinking what it is:
Do you think Component based frameworks are better than Action/Request based web frameworks?
From the naming I think I'm using both (of course, I must be wrong if things are asked like this).
My web front-end (Pages and Code behind / Views and Controllers) are Request/Action while my other layers are Component based...no?
Or does this apply to specific frameworks or ways doing things?
I have a requirement whereby I need to be able to change the controller being used based upon a parameter. I am creating an application that needs to be dynamic enough to be able to change controllers on the fly. Let me explain further;
When the application starts a dictionary of custom controller names is loaded with a controller name as the key and a custom controller name as the value. This will be help in the application scope.
When a request is made I need to access the requested controller name, use that name and check to see if it matches a key in my controller dictionary and if so, replace the requested controller name with the custom controller name from the dictionary.
example;
My dictionary will contain data as follows
Key: 'Home', Value: 'Home_IN'
Key: 'Customer', Value: 'Customer_BE'
Now, the following request is made 'User/Edit/1'. Does the controller name exist in the dictionary? No, continue with original request.
Now, the following request is made 'Home/Details/2'. Does the controller name exist in the dictionary? Yes, replace the original controller name 'Home' withe custom controller name 'Home_IN' so changing the requested URL to be 'Home_IN/Details/2'.
Does this make sense?
My problem here is knowing exactly where in the request cycle I need to do this?
I am assuming I need to create my own custom controller factory?
I have a common base class from which all my ASMX webservice classes will inherit. In the constructor, I want to do some common authentication checks; if they fail, I would like to halt processing right away (subclass's code would not get executed) and return a 401-status-code response to the caller.
However, the common ASPX-like ways of doing this don't seem to work:
Context.Response.End(); always kicks back a ThreadAborted exception to the caller, within a 500-status-code response. Even if I explicitly set Context.Response.StatusCode = 401 before calling End(), it is ignored. The result is still a 500-response, and the message is always "thread-aborted-exception". MSDN suggests I use HttpContext.Current.ApplicationInstance.CompleteRequest() instead. However, this does not stop downstream processing: my subclass's functions are still executed as if the constructor had done nothing. (Kind of defeats the purpose of checking authorization in the constructor.) I can throw a new HttpException. This is a little better in that it does prevent downstream processing, and at least it gives me control over the exception Message returned to the caller. However, it isn't perfect in that the response is still always a 500. I can define a DoProcessing instance var, and set it to true/false within the constructor. Then have every single WebMethod in every single subclass wrap its functionality within an if (DoProcessing) block... but let's face it, that's hideous!
Is there a better / more thorough way to implement this sort of functionality, so it is common to all my ASMX classes?
edit: Accepting John's answer, as it is probably the best approach. However, due to client reluctance to adopt additional 3rd-party code, and some degree of FUD with AOP, we didn't take that approach. We ended up going with option #3 above, as it seemed to strike the best balance between speed-of-implementation and flexibility, and still fulfill the requirements.
I have a small vb.net-based page, displaying a booking form with a large dropdown of movies.
now this page can be opened on two ways, one is directly (no preselection=no problem)
the second way is with a link like "page1.aspx?movieid=400" which should open the booking table and preselect the movie with ID 400.
How can I do this in VB.Net?
This question seems to be pretty close to what I am looking for - I was able to setup tracing and I am looking at the log entries for my calls to the service.However I need to see the raw soap request with the data I am sending to the service and I see no way of doing that from the SvcTraceViewer (only log entries are shown but no data sent to the service) - am I just missing configuration?
<system.diagnostics>
<sources>
<source name="System.ServiceModel"
switchValue="Verbose"
propagateActivity="true">
[code]...
I am developing the web site, It consists of device name list and related Build Button. When one click the Build button the one process will run in server. When more than ten user click the Build button more processes will create at that server will hang. How can send all request from client to single process in server.
View 2 RepliesI have one asp.net application, which has some problems while i am entering the special characters such as ": &#, " in the search box. If i enter this text in search box, i got the exception like this. A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected from the client (txtValue=": &#, ").
then i searched on the net, i got one general solution for this that to set the validaterequest to false. But no changes has been made on my application.
We currently have the code in WCF to sign the outgoing client requests' SOAP Body, however we need the same code for use with WSE 3.0. I can't find any examples of this.
View 3 RepliesWhen making a call to a SOAP web service how does one go about adding a user agent string to the request from a SOAP client?
View 1 RepliesIs it possible to request an X509 certificate from a client without configuring the application to use Windows Authentication? The purpose would be to press an asp.net button and "digitially sign" a web-form's contents. I do not need any login information, just the X509 cert.
View 1 RepliesI have a username textbox on a form, that has a few validation rules applied to it via the DataAnnotation attributes:
[Required(ErrorMessage = "FTP login is required")]
[StringLength(15, ErrorMessage = "Must be 15 characters or fewer")]
[RegularExpression(@"[a-zA-Z0-9]*", ErrorMessage = "Alpha-numeric characters only")]
public string FtpLogin { get; set; }
I also have a button next to this text box, that fires off a jQuery ajax request that checks for the existence of the username as follows:
<button onclick="check(this);return false;" id="FtpLoginCheck" name="FtpLoginCheck">Available?</button>
I'm looking for a way of tieing the two together, so that the client-side validation is performed before the call to the "check(this)" in the onclick event.
Edit: To be more clear, I need a way to inspect or trigger the client-side validation result of the textbox, when I click the unrelated button beside it.
Edit: I now have the button JS checking for $("form").validate().invalid, but not displaying the usual validation messages.