The question here is very simple
This is my view
[Code]....
"Product" is defined in bal. Product contains other business entities. What i simply want to do is to access the model with which view is binded in jquery and then post it to my action method in cart controller. i do not want to post the id of product. I want to post the actual model via jquery to my action method.
Is it possible, inside a Custom Model Binder, to fire "something" that "says" the value is invalid so it gets handled by validation part?
Basically, I am getting an exception when the value for the property is invalid.
how to open a subform model Form,Sub Window form using jquery that save the data ajex
View 4 RepliesI want to pass custom param to my ViewUserControl using custom Model.
1. I have created model
[Code]....
2. I have created custom ViewUserControl
[Code]....
3. I am rendering my custom ViewUserControl and passing new Model
[Code]....
The problem is that I don't know how to get acces to my model instance inside my custom ViewUserControl
Id like to access the ViewModel properties via javascript, i have a jquery treeview and links that fill the contects of a textbox asyncronously using javascriptalong with filling in a texbox, i also want to set the models properties without the need of a textboxFor because its an id and i would like to keep it hiddenwhen updating i need the contents of that textbox as well as the id (which i dont want the user to see)
View 2 RepliesI incorporated "JQuery UI DatePicker" from this site [URL] to my web application. I have it working but my issue comes with incorporating it with my strongly typed views.
I have included my revelant code below. The view is bind to the "NewEditDataTypeModel" model. I have 2 questions:
1. I have a date variable in my model that I pass to the view, how do I setup the DatePicker to use data from my model has a default value?
2. When an user selects a date from the DatePicker, how do I bind it to the model? Currently this value is passed in as a separate DateTime parameter in the action method (showned below).
I have a HTMLHelper Extension for the DatePicker:
[Code]....
Inside my view it looks like this: (code snippet)
[Code]....
My action method in my controller:
[Code]....
i have a simple model [Code]....
when i render a view to show the data inside the model, i also need to write some javascript
how to get the ID value in the script from the View?
We have a site that is public facing, let's say it's http://www.example.com. When the SSL is implemented, [URL], I can no longer access the jQuery 1.4.3 file on my own server. Furthermore, after a tweak to the security setting, I was able to get past the 'Access is Denied' error, but the first call was null.I understand there is a problem with different protocols actually being within the scope of the cross-domain problem? Is that true? And if so, will this now require JSONP?
<script type="text/javascript" src="<%= ResolveUrl("~/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js") %>"></script>
<script type="text/javascript" src="<%= ResolveUrl("~/js/jquery.jstree.min.js") %>"></script>
<script type="text/javascript" src="<%= ResolveUrl("~/js/jquery.dataTables.min.js") %>"></script>
<script type="text/javascript" src="<%= ResolveUrl("~/js/jquery.cookie.min.js") %>"></script>
I was wondering if anyone can point me in the right direction? I have a POCO model and I am using Code First CTP. In my application, I set the database to be recreated whenever the model changes.
I would like to write custom functionality to access the model (POCO) metadata same way as EF sees it and use that to generate some source files (using T4). I would like to access the processed model not having to worry about finding properties that hold primary keys or any other conventions (implicit or not). What is the way to go about it?
So i'm working on the form that i started MVC with - the problem is that i'm NOT using a ViewModel for the view, its an actual Linq to SQL object. And so far it works fine. This form is a beast and id rather not refactor it to use viewmodels....
My big problem now is that depending some condition, i pretty much set almost everything to disabled when a particular dropdown is selcted (to mimic a deactivated state) - when the user hits submit, the model fields are now null, even tho you can see them filled in (just greyed out and unselectable) and validation refuses them.
Is there anyway around this other than to refactor the Views to use ViewModels (and set different validation rules so submit works)?
I am implementing jquery tabs with partial views in my project.I just tried the implemention mention in this link [URL]My tabs are working very fine.. my question is how can i send the model in that viewto partial view..i think we can do it by this syntax @Html.RenderPartial("Name",ObjectModel);In the above link Kevin created the tabs with only anchor tags... it will pick the partial view and how can i send the model to that partial view....
View 3 RepliesI have an asp.net 2.0 web application that will run on the same web servers as SharePoint Server 2007. The application should run in its own App Pool (IIS 6.0). The Web Application needs to call the SharePoint Object model API.
Is there a resource that explains the required configuration / security settings and other considerations? It is possible that I need to make some settings in SharePoint Admin Console itself; aswell as config files. Script files might need to be located in a specific location in order to be accessible. Assemblies may need to be signed.
I can only get partial success running my Web application. But only if it is deployed to a Virtual Directory that resides under the SharePoint Website (in IIS & File system). Even with this setup, I JQuery / Javascript throw errors when accessed (object null); and also images not loading.
I have made some changes to the Web applicaton web.config file which have allowed me to run the application albeit the above mentioned issues with scripts and images (Virtual directory properties also set to allow scripts and executables to run). Ajax functionality appears to work OK.
I have a view that is strongly typed and its model is of type LogOnModel. That LogOnModel has anotated properties like this one:
[Required(ErrorMessage = "Please enter your password")]
[DataType(DataType.Password)]
[Display(Name = "Password", Description = "Your secreet password")]
public string Password { get; set; }
All of them has Display anotation with Display.Descripion property set. I want to create HtmlHelper extension method that will output <span> containg the value of Display.Description property. So for example if I called my extension method DescriptionFor than this code:
<%: Html.DescriptionFor(m => m.Password) %>
should produce following html: <span>Your secreet password</span>
Really new to C# & Web developing - but have used the DAL & BLL model from a number of the turorials. Have a situation that I not sure the best way to accomplish. I have an application dealing with courses, books, etc. utilizing an Access Database. All was going well in creating an on-line catalog using Formview and tables to display the db values stored in the Course Table (Course ID the key). User is able to use dropdown list to locate the course - dropdown list showed the Course Nbr & Name, but used the Course ID to get the detail. This issue appeared when they introduced a Prerequisite field in the Course Table. This contains the Course ID of the prerequisite course, but they want to display the Course Nbr and Name in the table field. So today it show 18 (Course ID) and they want B101 Intro to Biology. Hope I have provided enough information of what the code looks like below
Here is the FORMVIEW & TABLEROW
<asp:FormView ID="FVGeeralidades" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ClaveAsignaturas"
DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1">
<ItemTemplate>
<asp:TableRow ID="TableRow5" runat="server">
<asp:TableCell ID="TableCell11" runat="server" HorizontalAlign="Left" Text="<STRONG>1.6</STRONG> Prerrequisito"
Width="150px"></asp:TableCell>
<asp:TableCell ID="TableCell12" runat="server"></asp:TableCell>
<asp:TableCell ID="PrerrequisitoValue" runat="server" HorizontalAlign="Left">
<%# Eval("AsignaturaPrerrequisito")%>
</asp:TableCell>
Here is also the OBJECT DATA SOURCE
<asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource1" runat="server" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}"
SelectMethod="GetCourseByCourseID" TypeName="CoursesBLL">
<SelectParameters>
<asp:ControlParameter ControlID="DDLCourse" Name="CourseID" PropertyName="SelectedValue"
Type="String" />
</SelectParameters>
</asp:ObjectDataSource>
i am loading a page when we click a button .i am require a loadimage.show when i div laoding time and disapper when i div loaded but model form content is not show
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I need to get model data into a JavaScript variable and use it as an int to compare values. But I can only figure out how to get the model data as strings, otherwise the compiler complains.
So how can I get the max and taskBudgetHours as int variables in the Javascript?
[code]....
I have developed a website that allows users to upload office documents then uses the office object model to convert the document to an HTML file that it then displays in an iFrame. I have, of course, included references to Office.interop.word, and the site works fine on my development machine. When I uploaded it to my production server the site functions fine until I try to upload a document. I initially got a similar error that said "COM object not registered". I realized that Word wasn't installed on my production server. So I installed word and now when the server tries to access the word object model I receive the following error:
Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {000209FF-0000-0000-C000-000000000046} failed due to the following error: 80070005 Access is denied. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80070005 (E_ACCESSDENIED))
I searched the registry for the corresponding CLSID and found a corresponding folder. I added full control to the IUSR_ account and due to the persistence of the error I eventually added full control to "everyone" and ensured these permissions inherited down to the rest of the folder. I then added full control to IUSR_ and again eventually added full control to "everyone" to my microsoft office folder. I don't know what other permissions to grant and where in order to make this "Access is denied" error go away. I must be granting them in the wrong place, because as far as I know I can't be any more permissive than "Everyone" "Full Control".
I'm building an MVC 2 RTM app, and I want to be able to share my model across applications. I'd *like* to be able to implement it like:ASP.NET MVC2 app (holds Views and Controllers)Class library to hold Model(s)WCF app to handle the data transactions with the models via different data stores across apps I had the MVC app working fine, but I wanted to abstract the data stuff and be able to work with the model across apps through the WCF site, so I created a class library project and moved all of the Models classes into that and set-up a WCF app, then added project references to the MVC and WCF apps that point at the class library. The idea was I can create services that take and return objects from the model via method calls across apps. It appears that everything's wired up correctly in the MVC project, so I'm passing the objects stored in the Models class library between controllers and views and everythig is compiling just fine, but for some reason the data is not being passed back from the views to the controller on POST -- all of the properties in the classes are null or empty.
When I debug the app, I can see that the values are stored in the model data dictionary but not the model object itself. What am I doing wrong? Am I on the wrong path, or missing something obvious (to some)?
I made a few changes to the DB in SQL server management studio then right clicked on the .edmx doc to get it to update. That seemed to work fine but when i compiled the app everything that referenced the EF seems to be broken.The Error list now contains the below error for all classes that used it.
The type or namespace name '' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)
I have an issue of static variable in an asp.net application. Let's say I have a server with 8 CPUs running windows 2008 R2 hosting an asp.net webbsite, nothing fancy here, no funny configuration.
Is the following statement true? at any single time, there's one and only one process is running and accepting requests, even in the recycling stage. The reason I am asking is: I have a static field in my class, and I want to make that's the only static instance in the website. I've heard in some circumstances, IIS is recylcing your application, and it will start a new process, but the old process is still working, thus I will have 2 static instances in memory, which defeat the purpose of static field.
One step further, let's assume there might be 2 instances in memory, can I assume there are at most 2 instances at any single time? And can I assume once the second instance is up, the first instance will NEVER accept new requests?
Another question: Recently I have a problem with an applicationdomain concept. Looks like if an application domain causes a memory leak, unload the domain will not release the memory (Umanaged leak). So to what extent Application Domain is isolated?
I am trying to make a post that should use the Default Model Binder functionality in ASP.NET MVC 2 but unfortunately I can't get through. When I click on the checkout button I populate a form dinamically using jQuery code and then submit this form to the server. This is the form that get submitted
<form action="/x/Order/Checkout" id="cartForm" method="post">
<input name="__RequestVerificationToken" type="hidden" value="UDjN9RdWheKyWK5Q71MvXAbbDNel6buJd5Pamp/jx39InuyYIQVptcEubIA2W8DMUzWwnZjSGkLspkmDPbsIxy8EVuLvfCSZJJnl/NrooreouptwM/PaBEz2v6ZjO3I26IKRGZPqLxGGfITYqlf8Ow==">
<input id="CustomerID" name="CustomerID" type="hidden" value="1">
<input id="FirmID" name="FirmID" type="hidden" value="2">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[0].ServiceTypeID" value="1">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[0].Quantity" value="1">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[1].ServiceTypeID" value="2">
<input type="hidden" name="CartItems[1].Quantity" value="1">
</form>
This is the jQuery code that handle the submit event for the form
$("#cartForm").submit(function (event) {
event.preventDefault(); var form = $("#cartForm");
var panel = form.parent(); panel.parent().block();
$.ajax({ type: "post", dataType: "html",
url: '<%: Url.Content("~/Order/Checkout") %>',
async: false, data: form.serialize(),
success: function (response, status, xml) { panel.parent().unblock(); },
error: function (response) { panel.parent().unblock(); } }); });
This is the controller action that should be get called
[HttpPost]
[ValidateAntiForgeryToken]
public virtual ActionResult Checkout( CartModel cart ) {
} And finally this is the CartModel class involved
public class CartModel : BaseModel{
public int CustomerID { get; set; }
public int FirmID { get; set; }
public List<CartItemModel> CartItems { get; set; }
public CartModel() { CartItems = new List<CartItemModel>();
} } public class CartItemModel : BaseModel
{ public int ServiceTypeID { get; set; }
public int Quantity { get; set; } }
But the default Model Binder does not bind the web form data to a CartModel class. Using Fiddler I have been able to see that the data sent to the server is correct as you can see from the following snapshot.
The title says it all really. With ASP.net 2.0 I always used tableadapters etc and data access classes as my model, but with Entities and Linq to SQL i now wondwe which model to concentrate on.What method do you guys use?
View 2 Replieswhen I use Html.HiddenFor( model => model.OwnerId ) to create a hidden field, the value assigned to that field is zero. When I use <input type="hidden" value="<%: Model.OwnerId %>" /> to add the hidden field to the form, the value is assigned correctly.
Why would Html.HiddenFor( model => model.OwnerId ) not get the correct value from the Model object? Am I supposed to load model state somehow separate from returning the model object from the action method? Here is the view:
[Code]....
The Create action method is relatively straight forward.
public ActionResult Create( ... )
{
ViewStockItem item = new ViewStockItem();
item.ActionCode = ActionCode.Add;
if (item.OwnerId == 0)
item.OwnerId = 7;
BookOwner owner = db.BookOwners.Single(c => c.OwnerId == item.OwnerId);
item.OwnerName = owner.OwnerName;
return View(item);
}
I've been used to decorating data model classes with data annotation attributes, but the purist in me baulks slightly at including purely presentational attributes such as display format here. I am, however, quite happy to keep validation centric attributes here. One good reason I have to continue keeping all annotations etc. in the data model is that my view model aggregates data model classes, e.g.
my ViewModelBase.DetailItem<TEntity> property in the view model is just a reference to an entity class in my data model. If I wanted to move presentational annotations to the view model, I would have to quite radically revise my design to one where I duplicate data model properties in my view model and use an object mapping tool to populate view model objects based on data model objects.
[code]....
Say I got a domain model as follows: (and my repository expect an instance of this object)
[Code]....
And a view model (which my views are based on)
[Code]....
At the moment I got it like this and have my controller action manually create a new Person object from the PersonModel object before passing it on to the repository, which does not feel right.
So I tried to have PersonModel inherit from Person and pass that to the repository (also tried casting the PersonModel to a Person object first), but that don't work out.
What's the right way to have PersonModel automatically cast to Person? I want to keep this logic as my current structure allow me to keep things really loosely coupled, with the repository layer not having a clue how it's being used.