Web Forms :: Get Text From Paragraph Tag On Server Side?
Dec 22, 2010
I would like to know if there is a way to get the text from the paragraph tags on the server-side. I know I can use a textbox, or rich text editor to get the text, but I am looking to see if this solution exists.My reason for this is I have a table, this table contains a "Notes" column and another column to write the comments.Here is the code to make a paragraph in editable to enter text.
[Code]....
As you can see I have provided the runat="server" and the id for the paragraph, but this is not visible on my server-side code.
I need to add Images in my Rich Text Box editor after a paragraph. I have gone through this article and it is very useful.
{URL] ....
But I have some question:
1. Can I add multiple images in this Rich Text Box.
2. After adding images and content in Rich Text Box, I want to save it in database. So where will I save images and content. I mean images in folder and content in database or both in database.
I have a gridview which I use to edit text fields. How is it possible to start a new paragraph when entering text? I'm hoping that this can be done without using markup, as the users are not neccessarily going to be particularly computer literate.
If I have a standard HTML textbox: I can retrieve the value using Request.Form. But how do I go about populating this textbox from the server-side? I tried Request.Form["txtTest"] = "blah"; but got a readonly error.
I have a content-sensitive firewall between my clients and my server. If we exclude SSL solution (it's not available in my case) then I was thinking of a javascript library which encrypts custom fields at client-side and a .NET class decrypts them at server-side. Is there any solution out of the box (maybe a server control) ?
i use asp.net and c# to build my web application.i'm trying to display message dynamically using ModalPopup extender.I add the event inside a loop and the message is selected according to my logic.My issue is that the label stays empty, it seems that the set does not take effect, so the popup comes up empty.
I have a series of textboxes on a FormView. There is a textbox for entering a percent for a deposit amount and next to that a corresponding textbox for entering a dollar value for a deposit amount. There are 3 sets of these.
If a user changes a percent textbox, I update the dollar value textbox based on the percent times the project's total cost. If a user changes the dollar value textbox, the percent textbox gets updated as a percent of that dollar amount divided by the project's total cost.
I have the percent textboxes formatted as "{0:0%}" and the dollar value textboxes as "{0:C}".
When a user types into the textbox, the formatting goes away and we get raw numbers but I don't want those raw numbers to remain as such after they tab or click out of the field. I added a TextChanged event to reset the formatting. This works fine on reformatting the percent textbox but the currency one remains as just a raw numeric value.
Here is the markup (ignore the lack of validation for numeric input only...it will be added):
I'm adding <ASP:TextBox>'s to a page in code.I'm going to set their ID and stuff like that.I'm wanting to retrieve the text of those textboxes on a button press.Now I know I can't simply do "Me.MyTBName1.Text". I guess I could loop through the controls and compare IDs. I'd rather be able to get the textbox's text directly somehow though.I could use Javascript to get the value, but I don't think I can use it server-side at that point.
The text and style runs properly but the server side code is ignored. How would I write this so that it's not ignored? Do I have any options?
Text = Text.Replace("Blank Div", "<div class=""New""><% If Session(""User"") Is Nothing Then%><asp:LinkButton ID=""lbtnSignup"" runat=""server"">Sign up</asp:LinkButton><% End If%></div>")
I have a validator on a textbox that validates against a list to ensure that the user doesn't input the same name. When testing it, if I type in the same name including the same case structure, it returns an error. If I change one letter to a different case, it doesn't return an error but rather my SQL server returns a duplicate error. How do I change the server-side validator so that it picks up duplicate names regardless of case?
i can use escape() and unescape() functions by Client side easily, but the problem when i have use escape() method for peice of HTML , then i dont know how to unescape this piece of HTMl By Server Side not By Client Side. how i can unescape (escapped HTML) by server side?
I have a hidden variable and its value is being updated using javascript(client side) which I make a call from server side code. After making the call I am not able to retrieve the updated value from Server side variable. I went through this forum [URL] but not able find a way how to implement functionality with IFRAME. I am trying to call the client side code and retrieve the updated value from server side in page_load event.
I have created dynamic control with both server and client side events.. if i set client side event server side event is not firing.. I have created the link button which will validate and do some necessary actions.. Validation is working but click event of link button is not firing .. if we remove the client side event , server side event is firing.. how to avoid this.. I want both events..
How could i call a javascript function in server side. I have to call the javascript function on the click of a linkbutton which inside a repeater control.
I have a requirement in which I have to call a JavaScript function in between my server side event and in that JavaScript function code I have to set hidden field value and in next line of that same event i have to use that hidden field value.
I was reading about the fact that you can turn an IFrame control into a server object if you give it the runat="server" attribute. So I did that, for the purpose of running a website WITHIN our network. What I mean is that I want the site that loads INSIDE the frame to be loaded from WITHIN our network's IP address, and not the remote location's (browser's) IP address.Does this not work this way or am I barking up the wrong tree with IFrames?
I have a situation with dozens of remote locations, many of which I cannot easily get static IPs for, using a web based service that has IP restrictions in their hosting environment. I am essentially trying to, via our web server, FUNNEL all the users in the field through our network via an IFrames webpage, so that they can access this service which requires static IPs. They are okay with this, at the service we are using, if I can get this idea working.
VPN is not an option. These users are ehhhhh... no comment. For that matter, I don't feel comfortable with these remote users being on my network as anything but a port 80 web user, because of the potential for viruses.
