What Is Digest Authentication / Finding Example Of The Transaction
Mar 5, 2010
i searched on google for a simple explanation of digest authentication but didn't find any good ones. How does it differ from Basic Authentication other than sending credentials as plain text?
Foe getting Logon computer username i m using digest authntication mode. But when i browse website it's asking for username and password. while already windows login with the same username.
I understood that in this auhtntication mode it's required. But r there any configuration with it i am not getting this Prompt ? Any group ploicy ??
For IE i have added website into trusted zone but still it's asking for username and password.
R there any other way i getting Computer logon name in asp.net application. There are But only work when i run from Editor from IIS it's not retuning value.
I am connecting to remote server for web service using ASP.NET 3.5 web site. something like, [URL]. Remote server is providing digest authentication to access the web service. I dont have access to modify authentication on the remote server but I have an windows account on that server. If I try to Access service WSDL through programming I get the following error:
The request failed with HTTP status 401: Unauthorized. Same web service if I try to access through browser, [URL], it asks for user name and password. Entered windows account user name and password, still getting error: You are not authorized to view this page, HTTP Error 401.1 - Unauthorized. How to pass the digest authentication credentials to the web service through visual studio or any other programmatic method?
I've recently enabled Digest Authentication on an intranet website/application I am creating for my company in ASP.NET.
The reason I have done so is because Windows Authentication seemed to only work for some users, and not for others. I could not figure out why nor do I know enough about IIS to try and trace the issue. After some trial and error, I found that digest authentication seemed to give me the behaviour that I wanted. That is: allow only users with a valid account on the domain to log in to the website with their credentials.
The problem now, is that Firefox (3+) seems to ask for the user to authenticate on every HTTP request sent to the server. This does not appear to occur in Internet Explorer (6+) or Chrome.
I've tried searching for solutions but I always arrive at dead-ends. I'll find a discussion about the issue, and every posted solution leads to a dead link...or it's on Experts Exchange and I don't have access to view to solution.
The issue appears to be related (from what I've read) to the way the different browsers send their authentication headers vs how IIS interprets them. I'm not sure what I can do to change this though? One of the solutions I had found mentioned writing an ISAPI filter to fix this, but of course the link to the finished filter was broken and I have no idea how to go about making one myself.
I've tried messing with the NTLM and other auth related strings in about:config to try and force Firefox to trust my server but that doesn't seem to work either.
From a few other sources I've read, it appears that everything should work if I switch back to Windows Authentication, but then I'm back at square one where the authentication would work only for some users and not others.
A solution for either problem would work for me, but I have very little information for the Windows Authentication issue. If someone could guide me through tracing the problem I'd gladly post more information for it as well.
I'm trying to connect to a site using digest authentication but it continuously gives "401 - Unauthorized" even the password is correct. Here's the sample code I'm using:
I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record.
So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing:
Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old
Without reading the whole text below, since this is on the ASP.Net side ... basically I think I need to know if there is a way to reduce the size of the forms authentication cookie. When using a DotNet 2.0 website, the ASPXAUTH cookie is about 232 bytes ... when using the same source code but upgraded to DotNet 4.0. the cookie is approximately 264 bytes, setting the ticketCompatabilityMode does not reduce the size since I think the default setting is Framework20. I length of the cookie, including the its' name can not be larger than 256 bytes in order to use it with the "Client Application Services".
I only did a cursory search of the asp.net forums, but will dilligently look for an existing solution.
----- BACKGROUND AND RESEARCH -----
I have been using all three features of client application services (authentication, profiles, and roles) in my windows app (DotNet 3.5 framework) for almost two years now. Up until now, I have not had any problems. This week I hit a brick wall and am pretty stumped with two seperate but related issues.
Issues:
In development, we decided to upgrade our websites/services to DotNet 4.0. All applications upgraded successfully. However we are unable to log into our application using Client Application services. No matter what user we use, Membership.ValidateUser returns false. Since we know the username and passwords, we thought this was strange. When debugging the application, we found that Membership.ValidateUser was throwing an InvalidOperationException (see below for complete exception) stating that the ASPXAUTH property was too long, longer that the schema created in the SQL/CE database. (See below for things tried).
In production .. A user all of the sudden could no longer gain access to the application. Upon inspection, his ASPXAUTH cookie was 264 characters long (9 characters longer than the schemas nvarchar(256)). Even though the user was being authenticated on the "server side", and the JSON query returned "{"d":true}", Membership.ValidateUser returned false. Again, as in the case above, the actual error was ...
I am assuming I am missing something very simple or that I overlooked a settings. In development, this is not a huge issue as I can release the Dotnet 4.0 websites when I am ready. But now that this has happened to a client on a production system, it is very worrisome.
In my asp.net website in VS-2005 with SQL-Server 2005 as db, I need to implement role-based Authentication/Authorization.
I am familiar to the practises used in role-based authentication..as I have previously worked on projects that used this method. However, my project lead used to design the database. Now I have an existing website where authentication has been set to anonymous by setting 'allow users="?"' in the authentication tags in web.config.
If I use the createUserWizard control and use the Membership.creatUser(.....) method in code behind will the asp.net security tables, like users, roles, userinrole etc get created on its own?
Just going to start making a web application and was wondering which was better, or at least what are the main differences between them (as it probably matters what I am using them for)?
We can catch the error log information by use EXEC xp_readerrorlog. I am just wondering is SQL have other types of log for us to reference information
I didn't wrote trigger for my tables... one table was missing, would it possible to know when the table was be deleted by some kind of transaction log?
What is the best way to format a transaction id?Conditions Max 15 characters: XXXXXXXXXXXXXXX -All transaction must be unique -Can contain both numerical and alphabetical characters -May contain Year, month, day
disconnected mode and transaction.it's give to me ERROR message
Quote.ExecuteReader requires the command to have a transaction when the connection assigned to the command is in a pending local transaction. The Transaction property of the command has not been initialized PHP Code: da.InsertCommand = cb.GetInsertCommand
my code is:
PHP Code: Dim con As New SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("DBCon").ConnectionString) Dim cmd As New SqlCommand("insert into Customer (customer_id, customer_name, note) values (@cid, @cname, @note)", con) Dim da As New SqlDataAdapter("select * from CustomerPhone", con)
table 1 [Code].... Table 2 [Code].... my stored procedure [Code]....
when ever i m passing the wrong the value in second table while updating its not updating the table but the problem it is inserting the value in first table i want the whole trans should proceed if success if not rollback
I want to know is there any method or any concept to save transactions before system crash or failure. I am doing project in C# and backend is sql server 2005.
i'm using the entity data model to insert data to my database. the thing is that when inserting data to more than one table i want to ensure that all actions completed correctly(or catch an exeption if not).
T is type YYYY is year MM is month DD is day N is sequencial number X is check digit
The problem is, how do I generate the sequencial number? since my primary key is not an auto increment integer value, if it was i would use that, but its not.
EDIT can I have the sequencial number resets itself after 1 day (24hours).
P201012080000000001X <-- first transaction of 2010/12/08 P2010120810000000002X <--- second transaction of 2010/12/08 P201012090000000001X <--- First transaction of 2010/12/09 (X is the check digit)
I am writing a simple ASP.NET MVC using session per request and transaction per request patterns (custom HttpModule).It seems to work properly, but.. the performance is terrible (a simple page loads ~7 seconds). For every http request, graphical resources incuding (all images on the site) a transaction is created and that seems to delay the loading times (without the transactions loading times per one image are ~1-10 ms with transactions they are over 1 second).What is the proper way to manage transactions in ASP.NET MVC + NH stack?
When i've put all transactions into my repository methods, for some obscure reasons I got 'implicit transactions' warning in NHProf (the SQL statements were executed outside transaction, even that in code session.Save()/Update()/etc methods were invoked within transaction 'using' scope and before transaction.Commit() call) BTW are implicit transactions really bad?
The problem is that the transaction is not working.For instance,now the code is correct so both sql statements are getting executed.However,yesterday the 'update' statement was incorrect but I could not realise that IT WAS NOT ALRIGHT, because the function was not throwing myTrans.Rollback().I had put a breakpoint and there was no rollback.Apparently, now the sql statements,above,are ok,so there is no issue at the moment,however if there was an error,still the function would execute as if the sql statements were successful.
I know that I can use a Stored procedure and finish with it.But i want to see it how the Transaction works using SQLtransaction class.
I have written several queries under one single transaction. When any of the query throws an error then the whole transaction should rollback. However, in some rare cases say 2% cases even after the error the next transaction is getting comitted.
note that all transaction processes (opening, committing and rollback) is done through .net.
I am using 64bit windows 2003 for data and application server. And website is configured for runapp32on64.
I have a multiple database operation, Have three tables (MSsql) and need to delete one row in each table in one operation, one after another. (Three functions, three rows of code). Everything is working as it should be, recently I was advised to use a transaction scope, which should guarantee the safety of deletion from all 3 tables together. Here is my new code: [Code]....
Locally all worked just fine, the transaction scope worked well, but when I have uploaded my application to my hosting server, I got an error of: The partner transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transactions. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8004D025).I talked with the host support, they tried to do something, then I got this error: Access is denied. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80070005 (E_ACCESSDENIED)).
After a 2 days, They have contacted me, they said it is not possible to disable some restriction, that will allow an access to this operation, because I'm using shared hosting, and I need to upgrade my plan to VPS. VPS is a very expensive for me, and I can't afford it, What I'm looking is a some similar way of doing the same operation as transaction scope do, that may work at my hosting, At least I would like to try something else. Is there any additional way for the transaction scope?