MVC :: Route With Nullable Values Using UrlParameter.Optional
Feb 23, 2010
I've got a route that I want to be able to pass nullable values to. I was using MVC 1 but updated my solution to MVC 2 to take advantage of UrlParameter.Optional.
My route look like:
[Code]....
Which works fine if I go to http://localhost:1234/Search.aspx/l-1/t-1/p-1/s-1 but when I go tohttp://localhost:1234/Search.aspx/l-/t-/p-1/s- or any combination with missing parameters I keep getting 404's.
Also on a related note since I've upgraded to MVC 2 I can no longer use RedirectToRoute for the above route I get the following error: No route in the route table matches the supplied values. Whereas in MVC 1 it would redirect to it without any problems.
View 2 Replies
Similar Messages:
Feb 19, 2010
I get a 404 error when I navigate to the following URL using the route below:
http://localhost:53999/properties/
However, all the following are correctly routed to the List action in my controller:
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa/new-york/manhattan/12
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa/new-york/manhattan
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa/new-york
http://localhost:53999/properties/usa [Code]....
In PropertiesController.cs: [Code]....
It looks like it should just go to the default controller/action,
View 5 Replies
Aug 7, 2010
I have the following routes setup in my route config file. I have a config reader that maps these to MVC-style routes.
[route name="customers" url="customers/{statename}/{marketname}/{pagenumber}"]
[controller name="Customers" action="Display" //route]
[route name="pcustomers" url="{customername}/customers/{statename}/{marketname}/{pagenumber}"]
[code]...
View 2 Replies
Jun 7, 2010
I want to define a route that have 2 optional parameters in the middle of the URL the start an end parameters are digits
[Code].....
View 1 Replies
Nov 3, 2010
I'm pretty new to C# and ASP.NET, so bear with me on this one. I'm setting up a page that receives query strings from the url. It then passes these strings to another method (in another class, actually), which goes on to do lots of things depending on the value of the query string.
The general structure looks something like this, where DoSomething() is actually part of another class that will be used by lots of different pages:
pretected void Page_Load (object sender, EventArgs e)
{
DoSomething (Request.QueryString["name"]);
}
public void DoSomething (string UrlVariable)
{
// if UrlVariable isn't set, initialize it to some value
// do stuff with UrlVariable
}
Here's what I'm wondering:
If the query string "name" isn't defined in the url, what does Request.QueryString return? an empty string? null? If it returns null, what happens if I try to pass null to a method that is expecting a string? Does the whole program fall apart, or can I check for null inside the DoSomething() method (after receiving the null string)?
The "name" is optional, so if the user doesn't set it, I'd like to detect that and initialize it to some default value. If possible, though, I'd like to put any validation inside DoSomething(), instead of doing the check on every page that requests the string.
View 2 Replies
Nov 10, 2010
I've written the following Extension Method
<Extension()>
Public Function ToUtcIso8601(ByVal dt As Date) As String
Return String.Format("{0:s}Z", dt)
End Function
But I also need a Nullable version of the same method... how exactly do I do this?
This is what I was thinking, but I'm not sure if this is the right way
[code]....
View 1 Replies
Jan 29, 2011
In my stored procedure I have declared some parameters as NULL values(Optional Parameters).
In my C#.NET code I didn't use the parameters to pass values to Stored Procedure's NULL
Parameters. So I am getting Exception.
I don't want to pass parameters from my code.Because I have declared 30 parameters in my
Stored Procedure as NULL values.
Is there any other way to execute Stored Procedure from Front End without passing values to
Optional Parameters in SQL stored procedure?
View 4 Replies
Jul 11, 2010
When I do an Html.RenderAction( action, controller, new { varName = value } ); if the original request had a parameter equal to varName, then the value is not changed in a render action.
Example:
1. Post to "C1/A1" with a string var _test = "abc"
2. Inside C1/A1 get some data and return a partial view
3. Inside the partial view I invoke an action on another controller. The action has an input variable with the same name and type (string _test) Html.RenderAction( "A2","C2", new {_test="fgh"});
4. the value in _test that arrives at C2/A2 is still "abc"
I've traced through it step by step, and the value used in the view render action call is correct, but in the next trace step, the value received at C2/A2 is incorrect.
If this is not an error, and creating a new route value to pass in render action is not the correct way to handle this, what is?
View 7 Replies
Mar 19, 2010
I just deployed a test MVC2 application to a shared host and get the error Could not load type 'System.Web.Mvc.UrlParameter' when firing up the application.This is a bin readable application as my hosting provider does not yet have MVC2 installed, however, they assure me this should run OK. Also this is a barebones application, basically the default project structure published for testing purposes.Any suggestions as to resolving this?
View 3 Replies
Jul 1, 2010
i m using default route of mvc2 like {controller}/{action}/{id}. i want to access that id field in view. how can i do that without using tempData and ViewData. if i have url like [URL] i need value 14 in aspx view
View 2 Replies
Sep 17, 2010
If I have a route mapped as follows, how can I add a constraint for the route values with periods in?
[Code]....
View 6 Replies
Feb 1, 2011
Global.asax route values
routes.MapRoute(
"Default", // Route name
"{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters
new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional, filterDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1), filterLevel = "INFO" } // Parameter defaults
);
Here's my actionlink
@Html.ActionLink(item.MachineName, "Machine", new { id = item.MachineName, filterLevel = "hello" }, null)
When the filterlevel is specified in the actionlink, it generates a url like this: [URL] Which is the same page as I am currently on. If I change the actionlink to use a property other than one that has a default value in the route table (yes, if I use filterDate it messes up too), it generates a link like this:..............
View 4 Replies
Aug 11, 2010
in my mvc2 application i have an action link like
[Code]....
docid is set to empty string because i want to clear ambient value of docid that is present in request context. i have gone through a lot of material on internet and even tried docid=String.Empty but it does not solve the problem and gives me url like /controller/action/id?docid=x. i also write a routeconstraint as suggested but it did not solve the problem either.clear those route values comming from request context with html.actionLink. i don't want to use html.routeLink
View 5 Replies
Apr 20, 2010
I need to pass javascript function as a parameter value to the ajax actionlink in asp.net mvc app. how can we achieve this?
View 1 Replies
Sep 16, 2010
I have a post-only action that has a different route. In my form, I need to post to it, but also keep the querystring values I currently have.
Initial response: /my/first/path/?val1=hello
Needs to post to: /my/other/path/?val1=hello
It seems when I specify a route, it of course only returns the route and doesn't append the querystring values of my original page (for obvious reasons).Is it possible to cleanly append querystring values to my the action attribute of the form tag?
View 3 Replies
Mar 13, 2011
I tried to mix asp.net 4 webfrom and ASp.Net MVC 3. I add required lines in webconfig, but I've issues implementing route in global.asax
Currently I use several routes for webfroms. routs template are like below
routes.MapPageRoute("Node", _
"article/sport/{nID}/", _
"~/article/articleview.aspx")
I encounter error, when I add below lines to global.asax
routes.MapRoute( _
"Defaultss", _
"{controller}/{action}/{id}", _
New With {.controller = "Home", .action = "Index", .id = UrlParameter.Optional} _
)
I want to know how could I mix ASp.Net MVC routes with webforms routes.
View 3 Replies
Apr 21, 2010
I am LINQ querrying against a datatable. However, I am unsuccessfull with catching null values. Here is my code that is giving me the following error.
[Code]....
I am checking to see if minperc is null. However to check that it still is trying to convert the value to double. Cant figure out a way around it. Here is the error: Cannot cast DBNull.Value to type 'System.Double'. Please use a nullable type.
View 1 Replies
Mar 9, 2010
when i run the app i got this error
A route named 'Admin_default' is already in the route collection. Route names must be unique.
Parameter name: name
this is my AdminAreaRegistration
[Code]....
View 2 Replies
Sep 24, 2010
I have a url that I want to map routing to:
[URL]
where tabvalue is one of: "personal", "professional", "values" or nothing.
I want to map it to a route like:
Member/Edit/{tab}
But my problem is - I don't know how to specify such constraints. I'm trying this regex:
^[personal|professional|values]{0,1}$
but it only works when I use url
[URL]
[URL]
and doesn't work for
[URL]
how to specify the correct constraint?
P.S. I'm not using MVC, just asp.net WebForms
View 6 Replies
Mar 14, 2011
Was looking at asp.net mvc complex routing for tree path as an example of how to define a custom route handler for my MVC app. Essentially, I want to give the end user ultimate flexibility in defining the URL for any given page, so I provide them with a field in the interface to specify their own custom URL.
My custom route handler is basically a wild-card handler. It will do a lookup and if it finds a match, map it accordingly. However, if no match is found, I want it to fall back and find the next rule that matches in the global.asax. Is that possible? Or do I essentially need to code the mappings that used to exist in my global.asax into my custom route handler?
View 2 Replies
Jan 25, 2010
I have a ASP.NET MVC view that displays a single ServiceProvider object. In this view there is a selectlist that lists one or more ServiceProviderGroup objects and uses the Id property for the value and the Name property for the text. In this list I also show a entry with a value of -1 and text of "No Provider". When the Edit[Post] method is called the Id value from the select list maps to a nullable property (GroupId) on a ServiceProvider object. When a value other the -1 is selected from the list it works as expected. But, when the value is -1, I want a NULL reference to be applied to the GroupId property during the UpdateModel call. Within the Edit method, prior to calling UpdateModel, I have tried replacing the entry within the Controller.ValueProvider with a null reference and adding a ValueProviderResult which contains a null reference, but the UpdateModel always has an issue (InvalidOperationException).
View 3 Replies
Mar 25, 2010
I have a property int? MyProperty as a member in my datasource (ObjectDataSource). Can I bind this to a TextBox, like
<asp:TextBox ID="MyTextBox" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyProperty") %>' />
Basically I want to get a null value displayed as blank "" in the TextBox, and a number as a number. If the TextBox is blank MyProperty shall be set to null. If the TextBox has a number in it, MyProperty should be set to this number.If I try it I get an exception: "Blank is not a valid Int32".
But how can I do that? How to work with nullable properties and Bind?
View 2 Replies
Oct 27, 2010
I have a problem with passing a model to a controllerIn my controller I have a HttpPost function that gets a EF model.The problem is that the form does not contains all properties of the EF model.When the function is called that gets this EF model, I get error messge of fields that are not nullable in the EF model.That's because the fields are not in the form, so the not nullable properties gets no value.
View 5 Replies
Nov 17, 2010
I am a c#/asp.net developer and I am having to work on a VB/asp.net. I started out with VB.NET but after years away from it I'm getting confused with the syntax.
I have two variables
Dim originalDate as DateTime?
Dim newDate as DateTime?
Both nullable datetimes, originalDate is a nullable date I am getting from the database and newDate time is set in code, I need to compare them, they can either both have dates, neither have dates or one have and one not.
I have a bit of code as follows:
if origEndDate = origEndDate then
When both origEndDate and origEndDate are "nothing" this statement is false (well when I run it in the watch window it comes back as nothing)!
I don't understand why this is the case because I was under the impression doing an "=" compares the two values and as they are the same surely it should be true?
What syntax should I be using as in C# I can do the above as so:
if (origEndDate == origEndDate) { }
and it will come back as true.
View 4 Replies
Feb 23, 2010
I have a small Linq to Sql database application, with a table set up with a datetime field (allow Null). I am able to submit 'Nothing' into the datetime field after setting my .dbml table | field | property to AutoGenerated = True. Why this is I don't know, but it works. Now that I can submit an empty datetime field to the database, I am having trouble loading it into an object with a property set as datetime.
Example: of property in object
Private _deliveryDate As DateTime = Nothing
Public Property DeliveryDate() As DateTime [code]...
Example: setting value when instanciating the obect
dim test as new dateObject(Nothing, ...) ' where (Nothing) represents the datetime field retrieved from the database set to null.When I try the above line I get "Nullable object must have a value."
View 1 Replies