I am implementing a CustomAuthorizeAttribute. I need to get the name of the action being executed. How can i get the name of current action name getting executed in the AuthorizeCore function which i am overriding?
View 1 RepliesI'm implement Comet in Asp.net MVC, I used timer to keep Async request in server, Async request will complete when timer elapsed 1 minute and response to client (to avoid 404 error) and then reconnect to Async Controller. I also wanna execute some Synchronous action during Async request was holding, but the problem is: When an Async action was executed and hold by using timer, the Sync Action wasn't called until Async action (comet long-live request) completed. I did test with firefox 3.6 many times, but the result is the same, so strange, Do you know why ? I have a sub some questions : To implement comet, using timer (response after some minutes elapsed) or thread (response after several time sleeping thread) to hold async request, which is better?
View 1 RepliesIs there a way of modifying the response in OnResultExecuted? Like reading the current response and writing it out again?
I want to replace date string in JsonResult after the object was serialized.
I think normally the execution sequence is content page's controller first, then master page (I have some inline code).
But now I have a situation that master page's inline code is executed before content page's controller.
I'm creating an ASP.NET MVC 2 (RTM) project that uses areas. The Index action of the Home controller of one area needs to use RenderAction to generate a sub-section of the page. The action called is also defined in the same Home controller. So the call should just be:
<% Html.RenderAction("List") %>
However, I get an exception:A public action method 'List' was not found on controller 'RareBridge.Web.Areas.Events.Controllers.HomeController'.
Note that I'm not in the "Events" area! I'm in a completely different area. If I remove the "Events" home controller, then the exception still occurs but names a different controller (still not the one I want it to call).
I've also tried providing the controller name and area to the RenderAction method, but the same exception occurs. What is going on here?
BTW: I am using Autofac as my IoC container
I have some problem with the custom validtor, I do validate at both client side & server side, and i have noticed that the client side code has been executed when I clicked Submit..
More details:
The page contains some Text boxes & one submit button, and all is client-server validated, the problem that when the end user selects the file path through browse control, the code will auto-fill in the file name textbox, and it gives the option to edit; The code which is doing this in the custom validtor client handler, here is the problem it is on_submit click handler, the script function has been called again....!
I have no idea if this is the correct behavior, But I don't want the script code to be executed when any server events fired... !
I've read that OnClick is executed on the server and onClientClick is executed on the client. Is it better to use OnClientClick to do something like close a modal popup?
If my understanding is correct then this would avoid a trip to the server to accomplish the same task. This would be great for something that doesn't need to make a round trip to the server and back.
I have a user control in a modal popup for login form. It's ajax post so when login is successfull it doesn't update the rest of the page. Would like to just redirect the user to thier current page but not 100% on how to do this from the accountController.
View 4 RepliesI'm stuck with a problem of which I can not imagine I am the first person having to deal with it. Yet, Google comes up with nothing useful and neither does SO, so here I am. I'm using ASP.NET MVC1 with a sitemap. Using an html helper I create a navigation menu that highlights the current selected option in the Site.Master page. Common scenario and easily done by using:
foreach ( SiteMapNode subnode in node.ChildNodes) {
if (SiteMap.CurrentNode == subnode) { //got ourselves the current here }
}
That's all fine and dandy, however, my problem is that I have 1 controller with multiple actions. Consider the following scenario:
Accounts
* clients
* suppliers
* maintainance
They would all be in my AccountController, doing a search that is identical but with a different AccountTypeId value. When I read the SiteMap.CurrentNode value it gives me merely the info that I am using the AccountController, but not which action I called. I've tried a whole bunch of things but I can not get the action that was requested. I hope I gave enough info there to give you an idea of the scenario. If you need anything else, let me know.
I'm localising a site via a Change Language control in the master page. I need to render the control with the current url you're on in each of the different languages.
So if you're on http://site.com/en/Home/About and you change the language to french, I need to direct you to http://site.com/fr/Home/About.
The localisation code works on the route data language property, so I've been trying to figure out how I can:
Get access to the current action (with all original parameters) Get the url to the current action (with all original parameters) with the route data changed.
I've tried passing the ViewContext from the parent into the UserControl, which gives me access to the route data but I can't figure out how to get the language routed url from that.
Without giving away specifics: basically, I have a bunch of users adding content to my site. What happens now is ajax sends the text to a web service which does its thing, sends the info to the DB, Sends the user an e-mail, and then returns a response to the browser to do something.
What I would like to do is change that order. I want to return a response to the browser so the user is not waiting on the e-mail to send before they get their response. Basically, I'm trying to gain every milisecond I can to quicken the response, and there's no reason for the user to wait for the server to send their e-mail before it tells them that everything worked ok. If the info went to the DB, that's all the user needs to know, they'll know the e-mail sent when it shows up in their inbox. I notice this is an issue on my local machine which has no SMTP server and can actually hang the page response up for a few extra seconds because it's throwing errors trying to send something with no SMTP server.
So, I know in my function when I say
[Code]....
it WORKS, but I want to send the e-mail after the return. Is there ANY way to get this to happen?
i can assign a simple anonymous function and it works, but i'm having trouble with a more complex one.
i am attempting to disable an image button after it is pressed.
any alternatives would be welcome, but i think this is the recommended
[Code]....
I am calling a file download action from javascript:
$elem.click(function() {
window.location.href = 'MyController/MyFileDownloadAction';
});
The controller returns a file:
[code]...
This action has a pretty high likelyhood of throwing an exception (or at least not being able to return the file).
Due to the nature of the application (which contains a lot of dynamic content), I can't really redirect to an error page in this situation. The current page needs to stay open somehow.
So I'm ideally looking for something like a javascript pop-up, but afaik this isn't going to be possible since I don't know any way to return a javacript instruction in a non-ajaxed controller call. If I display an error page I need to force it to open in a new window some how. Is there any possible solution to this problem?
how to call a ASP.NET MVC controller action from a javascript function in related view.
Particularly I am trying do do this from a recursive timer function like this:
script type="text/javascript">
function ShowTime() {
var dt = new Date();
document.getElementById("<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>").value = dt.toLocaleTimeString();
---> // the controller action call: "/Controller/ShowImage"
window.setTimeout("ShowTime()", 1000);
}
</script>
<asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox>
<script type="text/javascript">
// a startup script to put everything in motion
window.setTimeout("ShowTime()", 1000);
</script>
The action result is an image (JPEG serialized array) for display.
I'm creating an LDAP class that contains a function that returns the managers username of the current user.
I know that I can use the "manager" attribute to return CN="name", OU="group", DC="company" etc.I specifically want the managers username, does anyone know if there is an attribute string that I can send to LDAP that specifically gets the managers username only? If not, is there an alternative method to do so?
How do you get the current action / controller name in a controller or class?
i can't show it in my view but that's not what i want.
I have an application that I use to run Exchange Powershell commands inside C# code like below. This is an example of the relevant lines I use to run the powershell command.
RunspaceConfiguration rsConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create();
PSSnapInException snapInException = null;
//load Exchange shell
rsConfig.AddPSSnapIn("Microsoft.Exchange.Management.PowerShell.E2010", out snapInException);
Runspace runSpace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(rsConfig);
//open runspace
runSpace.Open();
//setup pipeline
Pipeline pipeLine = runSpace.CreatePipeline();
String sScript = "get-mailbox -identity 'rj'";
//add script to pipeline
pipeLine.Commands.AddScript(sScript);
//run the script
pipeLine.Invoke();
pipeLine.Dispose();
This code works perfect in all cases until now. the script I am trying to run instead of the one above is to set the RetentionPolicy for a mailbox. The script I am trying to run looks like this: Set-Mailbox -Identity 'rj' -RetentionPolicy 'Main Campus Retention Policy' When I run this in powershell itself it works perfectly but when I try to run it using the code below I get the error, "Cannot invoke this function because the current host does not implement it."
From this error, it almost seems like the command that runs in C# cannot run the RetentionPolicy command but that doesn't make much sense. I have Googled this and tried everything suggested but no luck.
I am desiging a master and details page from a search page..user can search for something and I need to display the result in jqgrid if the result has more than 1 row or record.. if the result is just one record then i have to directly send then to details page by skiping grid page... I do have an action method for results page and one more action method for Jqgrid data..i am trying to check the row count for the database result and trying to redirect to details action results..but its not working at all..and showing an empty jqgrid..
[Code]....
Lets say I have a simple controller for ASP.NET MVC I want to test. I want to test that a controller action (Foo, in this case) simply returns a link to another action (Bar, in this case).How would you test TestController.Foo? (either the first or second link)
My implementation has the same link twice. One passes the url throw ViewData[]. This seems more testable to me, as I can check the ViewData collection returned from Foo(). Even this way though, I don't know how to validate the url itself without making dependencies on routing.The controller:
public class TestController : Controller
{
public ActionResult Foo()[code].....
My httppost action doesnt seem to have received my model. The code is below;
[Code]....
i put a breakpoint on the line; return RedirectToAction("Error", "Dashboard"); and i found that appQualif carried no values whatsoever from the form i submitted..
I've been using Html.Action("ActionName", "ControllerName") to invoke child actions across controllers without needing to have the view in ViewsShared. This has been working great for displaying things like session or cookie information.
Instead of just accessing cookies, I would like to pass additional parameters to Html.Action("ActionName", "ControllerName") so the action can execute different code based on the the data passed to the original view.
Should I be using a different method to pass parameters to a child action in a different controller?
I'm trying to add file upload functionality to a page. I've got a form that posts the selected file to a controller with a 'savefile' method. But if I don't add a get version of 'savefile' I'll get a 404 error. Here is the form code which is presented on the Index page:
[Code]....
And here is the controller code:
[Code]....
Intuitively I don't think I should need a GET version of SaveFile but if omit it I get a 404 error when the form posts. Why should I need a GET version of SaveFile when all I want is to post a form and save the file?
Does any one know how to dynamically add ActionFilter to an Action?
View 3 RepliesWhy code <%= System.DateTime.Now.ToLongDateString() %> is not executed in ASP.NET.
<input class="input" name="url" id="url" type="text" runat="Server" style="width: 650px" onblur="this.value='<%= System.DateTime.Now.ToLongDateString() %>'" />
I have a web application developed in VS 2008. On a form, I have a <select> control that looks like this:
Code:
<select id="lstreports" class="width_280" size="1" name="lstreports" onserverclick="DisablePrintSchedule()" runat="server">
When make a selection from this control, the script DisablePrintSchedule() should fire but it doesn't. Below is my Javascript.
Code:
<script type="text/javascript">
function DisablePrintSchedule(){
alert('Made it here!');
var btn = document.getElementById('btnPrintSchedule');
[Code] ....
The first Alert isn't even executing. Is there anything I need to do in the code behind like Register the script?