I m trying to access a data after invoking a URL which redirects the output to another page with query strings.ie:
$.ajax({
url: 'http://foo.com/results/bar.aspx?fooid = 123&more=1',
success: function(data) {
[code]...
Reponse results empty. This URL is a redirect to another page with query string, I already have a page that parses the query string and write the output to a page.But response is blank.
I'm trying to save some content whenever a button/hyperlink is clicked using jquery.ajax (Using Asp.net 3.5). The logic is as follows:
Through .bind in jquery I bind my own method(MakeLog) to a button click or hyperlink click. The click events of button/hyperlink contain nothing, I need to use .bind for selective controls.Now we have a button whose click event will fire a method, say MakeLog.Code snippet for MakeLog is as follows:
var xhr = jQuery.ajax({
url: "/Logger.aspx",
data: { content: logContent }, [code]....
This works fine in IE but in Firefox this is not sending the data back as expected.I tried to identify the issue and came across the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3522944/jquery-ajax-calls-async-false-vs-async-true .What I understand is that, whenver page is redirecting/reloading due to button click or hyperlink click the async call is not working properly.
I have the following code where the function codeaddress geocodes the text feild value and returns geocoded value , geocoded value is stored in variable example ,how will i return the variable v2 to the function call and post to asmx webservice.
[code]....
I am just wondering that, is there anyway to make an Ajax request using jquery ("$.ajax") and making partial rendering without using the .NET Ajax framework (without script manager).
I have tried this before, but it's executing the page_load every time and not reaching to the pagemethod.
[code]....
I tried the Request.IsAjaxRequest but this does not exist in WebForms. I am making a JQuery ajax call. How do I check if this is a ajax request or not in C#?
View 4 RepliesI am trying to send data to my code behind method. It works except when I add to the data param.
[code]....
UPDATE: After seeing what client side errors were being thrown it seems that the ID is undefined. Is my method of getting the elements ID incorrect? Keep in mind I am using jsTree and ca I possibly use (obj)?
Controller: Products and Action: Save, return a JsonResult. If a trapped exception occurs, i would like to signal that error to the client (ie:jQuery) with a custom error message. How can I do that both on the server and client? Can i utilize the function pointer error in this scenario?
Here's the client code
[code]....
im working on a MVC 3 webapp where i want to post to a controller function using jQuery ajax. However, every time i post to the server i get a 400 Bad Request response and i can't figure out where this comes from as the site runs fine with the VS2010 devserver.
See the function im using to send the ajax post below:
[Code]....
I'm building a greasemonkey script to make posting to craigslist a lot easier for our clients.
Basically the flow is this:
User logs into our system (established authentication cookies with asp.net)User navigates to a section on our site called "CraigsList". If they have the greasemonkey script installed it automatically opens up craigslist in a new tab.
The greasemonkey script then does a request back to our site at [URL] to retrieve a list of available items to be posted to craigslist.
This is where it fails because the request to [URL] is not including any of the authentication cookies. I'm not sure if it doesn't include the cookies because the request originates from [URL] and not [URL] or what. I know it's an authentication issue because looking at it in fiddler it returns a 302 and redirects to the login page.
Here is my request:
[code]....
I'm doing the following ajax call:
[code]....
jQuery ajax request response is empty in Internet Explorer?
just been trying to recieve the session value from multiple jquery ajax requests on the same domain name. i think i understand that each request is kind of a virtual browser request so the session is mutally exclusive to each request, but there must be a way some how, has anyone solved this. Basically this is what im trying to do:
I have tries using type: GET and POST but still no luck.
First request - Stores the product id in a session
[code]....
I have an ajax call on a page which POSTS data: longitude and latitude. In the Javascript the two variables I pass in "posLong" and "posLat" are both decimals, something like: 50.81472239. When I do request.form in my .aspx.vb page which I've called, the value has now been rounded to 51.
View 4 Repliesfunction DatalistFunction(argumentid) {
set_minimum_points_for_session = value;
SetSession(set_minimum_points_for_session);
Redeem(argumentid);
}
this is my code which i am calling on link button onclientclick event.
sometimes what happens is redeem function gets called first and then setsession function gets called. do i need to put some delay or something between the 2 functions, so that they run everytime in their own order
I have a simple script making a request to the server:
var DTO = { 'path': path };
var url = 'default.aspx/Get';
var test;
$('#getInstance').click(function () {
$.ajax({
url: url,
type: 'POST',
dataType: 'json',
data: JSON.stringify(DTO),
contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8',
success: function (msg) {
test = msg;
},
error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) {
alert(textStatus);
alert(errorThrown);
}
});
});
This works fine as in it connects to the server and gets the data back, with one simple problem. It is treating this request as a cross domain request, therefore using jsonp. The server code is here:
[WebMethod]
[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)]
public static MyObject Get(string path)
{
MyObject foo = new MyObject();
return foo;
}
Normally this would not be a problem, except that I am accessing a WebMethod, and it doesnt have the capability to return a jsonp response (meaning it has no way to attach the callback function to the response. Now, if this was a manual response, I could hack it up and attach the parameter, but I am taking advantage of the built-in serialization, so no way to mess around with the response. [URL]
Let me just stress the fact that this code works. The only problem is jQuery treating this request as cross domain. But Why? UPDATE: Well, after many more hours and more testing I have narrowed this issue down to it being a bug in jquery 1.5.1. I did some testing with older versions (all 1.4 versions) and I had no problem, the request was made using JSON, and the response was received successfully. What could be the change they made that would consider this request a CORS?
i am searching for a way to create a grid (from some kind of jquery grid plugin didnt choose one yet)
anyway i want to call a webmethod and return a json serialized from a List of an object i created.
today i just use a regular grid view inside an iframe
but i want to eliminate that iframe and create those grids with ajax requests.
I have a very simple app where a user enters 2 text values and presses a button, I want a confirmation message to be displayed on the same page however it keeps redirecting to show the partial view as a full view.
This is my home View:
[Code]....
This is my ContactController:
[Code]....
And finally this is my Confirmation PartialView
[Code]....
This is using MVC 3/.Net 4, I have downloaded an MVC 2/.Net3.5 sample project from the web that is doing exactly the same which works fine. What am I doing wrong?
Ok, this is a bit different scenario. I guess I would have to think about doing it this way sort of with MVC anyway if we were actually using MVC...but we're not at the moment.So I've got and .aspx page. In that .aspx page is a user control (.ascx). And in that user control is a custom control (.cs).
The custom control has a repeater in it. So I'm showing a list of items on that .aspx through the .ascx's custom control. For each item in the repeater is a button. It's just a hyperlink, just a regular on my page When you click that button, it redirects to whatever page you're on. Since the custom control never knows what your parent .aspx page is, I'm doing a redirect to the self .aspx by doing a Response.Redirect(Request.Path). So that way it always redirects to whatever .aspx is using that user control and custom control.
So after it redirects to self, I check the querystring in the page_load of whatever .aspx is using it. If the value is true, then I handle it however the .aspx wants to. In this case when it's true, I call a method in the code behind of my .aspx that handles the action for the button. For example lets say that button was "Add to Shopping Cart", the .aspx handles that action and calls a AddToCart method in the .aspx.cs.
I'm not using an ASP.NET control for the actual hyperlink and button because I just don't need it and in my particular case I'm using a user control and a custom server control.For this instance, I had some issue where I didn't wnat to use an ASP.NET control...I forget why but the point is, no this is what it is.
So with that, I'm trying to figure out how I can apply some AJAX here call to call that method instead. I still need to somehow redirect again back to the same page like I'm doing...I'm doing the redirect in that method after all the logic at the end. I am redirecting again back to the same page, because I need my Page_Load methods in my .aspx and also in an .ascx to still fire off after that method is completed.So I am not sure where to start on this. Let me go through this once again:
Custom control has a repeater in it and in the repeater, each item has a standard HTML hyperlink (non ASP.NET control) which wraps a standard image tag (image is a button)User control contains the custom control The .aspx page contains the user control User clicks the butt on and hyperlink redirects them to the parent .aspx page that is using this custom control...so it callsResponse.Redirect(Request.Path)
In the code-behind of this .aspx, in my page_load I check a querystring flag to see if I performed that action..meaning user clicked that button. For example one of the querystring params is "AddItem" and another querystring param is "itemID". If movedItem is true, then I fire off a method called MoveItem(int itemID) Method MoveItem is called Method MoveItem redirects again back to this same .aspx using Response.Redirect(Request.Path).. this is so that the page load is hit again as well as my .ascx page load is hit. Because in both those page loads, I rebind a repeater so I can show the latest state of the lists. I call a method in my .aspx page_load which rebinds a grid and then page_load in my .ascx also calls another method which rebinds some other list
I have a AsyncFileUpload control on a greybox popup. There are some processing that happens, and then closes the popup registering javascript as a button click event fires.
If i upload a file with the AsyncFileUpload popup page redirects to itself instead of the parent page. It redirects to the parent page as it supposed to if I dont upload a file using AsyncFileUpload. Another thing I have noticed is if I upload a file using AsyncFileUpload popup gets closed and redirects to self on any button click even without the close script call.
I developed a website in ASP.NET with huge Database, Now i have another website in HTML & PHP. I want to make user login authentication from HTML website which will authenticate the login details from the old website's Database.
Database used is SQL Server 2005.
I Created t HttpHandler to authenticate the user in old website.
I want to make a JQuery request from HTML website to old website which will authenticate login details and will redirect to the user to new page according to user type.
I am facing an error when requesting to WEBPageMethod using jquery and get 401 Unauthorized response and here is code for that
[code]....
i m trying to build a register page, which will show username is already there or not ?
[Code]....
here it works well on blue it send request to user.aspx page to chk user there or not
here is my user.aspx code
[code]....
whats wrong on that?
īm trying to pass a header to a web service using jquery but i canīt. Iīm a NEWB at AJAX so please be gentle.
[Code]....
var OrderInfo = {
"ProductID": "ProductIDValue",
"ProductName": "ProductName",
"Quantity": 1,
"Amount": 9999,
"SLQuantity": 9999,
"SLDate": "08/03/2010"
};
var DTO = { 'OrderInfo': OrderInfo };
$.ajax({
type: "POST",
contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8",
url: "JasonHandler.ashx",
data: JSON.stringify(DTO),
dataType: "json"
});
I'm trying to retrieve posted JSON data on server side in an ASHX file via this code string strrequest = context.Request["OrderInfo"]; but it always return null. What Am I doing wrong?
I have a webpage where I am displaying some data.
On the top of that I have a button. On click of this button I am calling my webhandler using jquery/json, passing in some data to this handler. Now this data can containg html tags. So whenever I try to click that button it gives that Potential threat script
error. So I thought let me include ValidateRequest = false to my webpage.
Now when i do this it never hits my handler. I tried to debug also but my breakpoint is never hit in my handler. How to handle this.
This is how I call my handler:
[Code]....
where hidden value is the value which I want to pass to my handler and may contain html tags..
I know the question is very familiar but i can't over it.This is my Controller Action
public JsonResult AddToCart(int productId, int quantity = 1, int optionValue = 0)
{
AjaxActionResponse res = new AjaxActionResponse();
[code]...